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Is the King James Bible the Word of God?

AVL1984

AVL1984

<img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>
Dave G said:
@Guido :

Yes, it is the word of God, and no I will not develop that any further.

What I think you'll find, given enough time and discussion, is that there are precious few who post on this forum that actually believe that any translation in any language ( in print or out of it ) is the fully inerrant, inspired word of God that they can unwaveringly trust in.

What's more is, few here seem to agree on where to find His perfectly preserved words, what manuscripts they are truly preserved in, or even what they actually say and mean.



I wish you well and bid you a good evening.
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I believe the Word of God is preserved in many of the translations...in the Spirit of what was to be translated, not necessarily in the "word for word" of it that most who hold to such a theory believe. It's impossible to have a word for word translations, though they, through their poor exegesis of certain verses, would have one believe that it is indeed possible. Yes, every word of God is pure, and not one jot or tittle will pass away, but nowhere does it say that there will be a word-for-word translation of the same. They like to point to a verse about the word being purified 7x...and use numerology to say that this is the KJV...UGH! How stupid can people be? I know of NO translation that demeans the Gospel of Christ, the Sovereignty of God or elevates man above God.
 
G

Guido

Active Member
Well, in an honest mind you would have to admit, that the NIV does diminish Christ's Godhood in the flesh, and not just in a single passage only.
 
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AVL1984

AVL1984

<img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>
Guido said:
Well, in an honest mind you would have to admit, that the NIV does diminish Christ's Godhood in the flesh, and not just in a single passage only.
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Please post the passages....I'd like to see them. I used to use the NIV and don't recall any such passages.
 
G

Guido

Active Member
First, in Philippians 2, the NIV says that Christ " emptied himself and became nothing". Second, in another verse, the NIV fails to signify what the KJV says, that "God was manifest in the flesh".
 
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AVL1984

AVL1984

<img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>
Guido said:
First, in Philippians 2, the NIV says that Christ " emptied himself and became nothing". Second, in another verse, the NIV fails to signify what the KJV says, that "God was manifest in the flesh".
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You are taking one verse out of the whole passage and trying to make it say exactly what the KJV says...read it in context in the NIV, the preceeding verses...UGH...it doesn't take away from Christ being God....I hate when KJV people try to misrepresent other versions like this...Dishonest to the core, and it really injures what the Spirit of God can do in people's lives.
 
G

Guido

Active Member
AVL1984 said:
You are taking one verse out of the whole passage and trying to make it say exactly what the KJV says...read it in context in the NIV, the preceeding verses...UGH...it doesn't take away from Christ being God....I hate when KJV people try to misrepresent other versions like this...Dishonest to the core, and it really injures what the Spirit of God can do in people's lives.
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In one of the verses in that passage in Philippians, the KJV says the opposite of what the NIV says.
 
AVL1984

AVL1984

<img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>
Guido said:
In one of the verses in that passage in Philippians, the KJV says the opposite of what the NIV says.
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They don't have the same underlying texts...so why compare apples and oranges. Dishonest on your part.
 
robycop3

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
atpollard said:
God himself, from eternity to eternity, thinks, speaks and composes innately in King James English. It is a sad fact that the languages of man had not adequately developed for the first 5500 years of human history, forcing God to translate his trouts and express them in the more limited Hebrew and Aramaic and Greek until man had evolved (linguistically) and God could express himself in the perfection of the King’s English.

The mystery is why we feel the need to waste time even discussing this. ;)
(Has this horse not suffered enough?)
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HORSE FEATHERS !
God created all languages, & He expresses Himself in whatever language(s) He has given to His audience(s) for the occasion. A prime example is Acts 2:1-12 when Peter, speaking in his own language, was heard by his audience in whatever language each one used.
 
atpollard

atpollard

Well-Known Member
robycop3 said:
HORSE FEATHERS !
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Horse feathers? Good grief, how old are you? :p

The post was just a bit of “Tomfoolery” … and I prefer “balderdash” or “stuff and nonsense”. I once had an entire sheet of approved alternatives. :)
 
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AVL1984

AVL1984

<img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>
Guido said:
So then, if they don't have the same underlying text, which one is the Word of God, and which one is not?
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Who is to say they both aren't? I don't limit God...why do you? Remember, these aren't word-for-word underlying texts...there were, and have been, scribal errors, omissions, corrections, and additions. Still, they don't affect the underlying doctrines and purpose of God. The only ones that were perfect, which "onlies" like to deny, are the originals, which we no longer have. "Onlies" are the ones causing the confusion by trying to negate the Alexandrian underlying texts as "ungodly." Prove it. They can't. Nowhere do they negate God's holiness, love, death, burial, resurrection, and ascension of Christ. The doctrines aren't affected. You're always welcome to your opinion no matter how ludicrous and divisive it is.
 
Bible Thumpin n Gun Totin

Bible Thumpin n Gun Totin

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
robycop3 said:
Better vocabulary? I doubt it. But the KJV is as much God's word as any other fairly-accurate translation.
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Well, I don't doubt it! Haha

The quality and depth of the vocabulary is far beyond anything in our modern and simplistic version of English. I get more out of a verse from the KJV than I get our of an NIV verse.

My wife loves to use the NIV, and whenever there's a question about an unclear NIV verse I pull up the KJV and it's crystal clear. My children study with the KJV for that specific reason.
 
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