Featured Is the King James Bible the Word of God?

Psalm 138:2 (KJV)
I will praise thee with my whole heart:
before the gods will I sing praise unto thee.

2 I will worship toward thy holy temple,
and praise thy name for thy lovingkindness and for thy truth:
for thou hast magnified THY WORD ABOVE ALL THY NAME.

 

Another KJV goof! It SHOULD read "For You have magnified Your Word and all Your name." Don't believe me? Just ask a Hebrew expert !

THE KJVO MYTH-PHONY AS A FORD CORVETTE ! !

 

Those verses do not support your non-scriptural KJV-only opinions.

Psalm 138:2 was referring to the word that had been magnified [past time] long before the 1611 KJV had ever been made.

 

Well, I'm not a Hebrew expert, but did take it in seminary. The Hebrew word is ‛al (על), and the BDB lexicon does give "above" as one meaning. Keil and Delitszch do give "above every name of thine" as their rendering.

However, IMO the best translation theologically is "on the ground of your name." This is a passage where a translator truly needs a theological education to do the best job. Some of the KJV translators, while first class philologists, were not first class theologians.

Carry on.

 

Since I have weighed in here, I might as well answer the OP.

1. I do not believe in double inspiration. It is a contradiction in terms. If the original language documents are inspired and inerrant, then no translation can be perfect. If a translation is perfect, then the original language documents cannot be perfect. Thus, Ruckman's doctrine of advanced revelation through the KJV is logically coherent, though completely wrong.
2. The KJV is the Word of God to the exact extent that it accurately translates the original language documents. One place it is definitely in error is: Exodus 22:28, which says: "Thou shalt not revile the gods, nor curse the ruler of thy people." This rendering endorses idolatry.
3. The original language documents are God's preserved Word. However, we believers have a human responsibility to preserve God's Word on earth, since we are priests of God. We do that through translation, printing, memorizing, and in many other ways.

 

Not if one understands the judges are being referred to. https://www.chabad.org/library/bible_cdo/aid/9883/jewish/Chapter-22.htm
Verse 27 in the Jewish Bible.
"27You shall not curse a judge, neither shall you curse a prince among your people."

 

The Hebrew word does not endorse idolatry, but the KJV rendering does. There are, of course, other places in the OT where the word is rendered "judges" in the KJV.

 

At Exodus 22:28, the 1560 Geneva Bible rendered it: "Thou shalt not rail upon the judges, neither speak evil of the ruler of thy people."

The makers of the KJV may have kept "gods" from the 1568 Bishops' Bible which has "Thou shalt not rail upon the gods, neither blaspheme the ruler of the people."

 

I believe God PRESERVED His INSPIRED WORD, in a book.

By COMPARISON, the KJV is that BOOK, now.

(others may be dismissed out of hand, as "INTERPRETED" and "TRANSLATED" from
Spurious Bible texts.)

 

No, it's just one of several English translations. There are better ones out there now.

 

You can choose to believe whatever opinions that you want to, but your personal belief does not make them true. You can be believing opinions that are not true; thereby, deceiving yourself. Your making the claims does not make them become true.

The Scriptures do not state nor teach your opinions. The Bible's doctrine of preservation directly concerns the same exact specific words that were given by inspiration of God to the prophets and apostles, which would be the original-language words of Scripture.

The KJV was translated from multiple, textually-varying, imperfect Bible texts. The Church of England makers of the KJV made use of the imperfect Latin Vulgate of Jerome as one of its varying sources and even borrowed many renderings from the 1582 Roman Catholic Rheims New Testament translated from the Latin Vulgate.

 

Its as much in English the word of God to us as are the Nasb/Esv/Njkv, no more no less!

 

Absolutely, YES.

But my favorite that suits me best is ASV 1901, which is also the "Word of God".

 

Makes me wonder why you even show up in church to listen to a God ordained Bible teacher of any translation if you already know it all.

 

The word "gods" is used over and over again in the context of someone who operates outside the will of God, which includes all unsaved. It is not exclusively used this way and often refers to idols and false gods.

Here is what Elohiym said about Adam.

Ge 3:5 For God doth know that in the day ye eat thereof, then your eyes shall be opened, and ye shall be as gods, knowing good and evil.

‘elohiym
AV-God 2346, god 244, judge 5, GOD 1, goddess 2, great 2, mighty 2, angels 1, exceeding 1, God-ward + 04136 1, godly 1; 2606

1) (plural)
1a) rulers, judges
1b) divine ones
1c) angels
1d) gods

2) (plural intensive-singular meaning)
2a) god, goddess
2b) godlike one
2c) works or special possessions of God
2d) the (true) God
2e) God

Ps 82:6 I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High.

Isa 41:23 Shew the things that are to come hereafter, that we may know that ye are gods: yea, do good, or do evil, that we may be dismayed, and behold it together.

Joh 10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?

You see in what application Jesus is applying this prophesy from the OT to the Jewish leaders.

This is the application to be understood in Ex 22:28. The gods are the rulers of other peoples and the ruler of thy people, Israel, is in view here. Two groups. The instruction is to curse neither or to esteem them lightly.

"Thou shalt not revile the gods (430), nor curse the ruler of thy people."

Your conclusion on this verse is a great and thoughtless error.

0430 אלהים ‘elohiym [el-o-heem’