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Is the King James Bible the Word of God?

Alan Gross

Well-Known Member
The only perversion here is the KJVO myth, man-made & false, without one quark of SCRIPTURAL SUPPORT, even in the KJV itself.
Psalm 138:2 (KJV)
I will praise thee with my whole heart:
before the gods will I sing praise unto thee.

2 I will worship toward thy holy temple,
and praise thy name for thy lovingkindness and for thy truth:
for thou hast magnified THY WORD ABOVE ALL THY NAME.
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Psalm 138:2 (KJV)
I will praise thee with my whole heart:
before the gods will I sing praise unto thee.


2 I will worship toward thy holy temple,
and praise thy name for thy lovingkindness and for thy truth:
for thou hast magnified THY WORD ABOVE ALL THY NAME.
Another KJV goof! It SHOULD read "For You have magnified Your Word and all Your name." Don't believe me? Just ask a Hebrew expert !

THE KJVO MYTH-PHONY AS A FORD CORVETTE ! !
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Psalm 138:2 (KJV)
I will praise thee with my whole heart:
before the gods will I sing praise unto thee.


2 I will worship toward thy holy temple,
and praise thy name for thy lovingkindness and for thy truth:
for thou hast magnified THY WORD ABOVE ALL THY NAME.

Those verses do not support your non-scriptural KJV-only opinions.

Psalm 138:2 was referring to the word that had been magnified [past time] long before the 1611 KJV had ever been made.
 

John of Japan

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Another KJV goof! It SHOULD read "For You have magnified Your Word and all Your name." Don't believe me? Just ask a Hebrew expert !

THE KJVO MYTH-PHONY AS A FORD CORVETTE ! !
Well, I'm not a Hebrew expert, but did take it in seminary. The Hebrew word is ‛al (על), and the BDB lexicon does give "above" as one meaning. Keil and Delitszch do give "above every name of thine" as their rendering.

However, IMO the best translation theologically is "on the ground of your name." This is a passage where a translator truly needs a theological education to do the best job. Some of the KJV translators, while first class philologists, were not first class theologians.

Carry on. :)
 

John of Japan

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Since I have weighed in here, I might as well answer the OP.
Some hold that the KJV is inspired, adhering to the doctrine of double inspiration, declaring the KJV the Word of God, whereas others hold this, that the preserved Word of God is found in one of the Greek manuscripts, or a collection of Greek manuscripts, declaring that no translation into English is perfect. And others hold that only the original biblical writings are the preserved Word of God.

What view do you hold, and what are the arguments in support of your view?
1. I do not believe in double inspiration. It is a contradiction in terms. If the original language documents are inspired and inerrant, then no translation can be perfect. If a translation is perfect, then the original language documents cannot be perfect. Thus, Ruckman's doctrine of advanced revelation through the KJV is logically coherent, though completely wrong.
2. The KJV is the Word of God to the exact extent that it accurately translates the original language documents. One place it is definitely in error is: Exodus 22:28, which says: "Thou shalt not revile the gods, nor curse the ruler of thy people." This rendering endorses idolatry.
3. The original language documents are God's preserved Word. However, we believers have a human responsibility to preserve God's Word on earth, since we are priests of God. We do that through translation, printing, memorizing, and in many other ways.
 
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37818

Well-Known Member
2. The KJV is the Word of God to the exact extent that it accurately translates the original language documents. One place it is definitely in error is: Exodus 22:28, which says: "Thou shalt not revile the gods, nor curse the ruler of thy people." This rendering endorses idolatry.

Not if one understands the judges are being referred to. https://www.chabad.org/library/bible_cdo/aid/9883/jewish/Chapter-22.htm
Verse 27 in the Jewish Bible.
"27You shall not curse a judge, neither shall you curse a prince among your people."
 

John of Japan

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
At Exodus 22:28, the 1560 Geneva Bible rendered it: "Thou shalt not rail upon the judges, neither speak evil of the ruler of thy people."

The makers of the KJV may have kept "gods" from the 1568 Bishops' Bible which has "Thou shalt not rail upon the gods, neither blaspheme the ruler of the people."
 

Alan Gross

Well-Known Member
I believe God PRESERVED His INSPIRED WORD, in a book.

By COMPARISON, the KJV is that BOOK, now.

(others may be dismissed out of hand, as "INTERPRETED" and "TRANSLATED" from
Spurious Bible texts.)
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I believe God PRESERVED His INSPIRED WORD, in a book.

By COMPARISON, the KJV is that BOOK, now.

(others may be dismissed out of hand, as "INTERPRETED" and "TRANSLATED" from
Spurious Bible texts.)
No, it's just one of several English translations. There are better ones out there now.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I believe God PRESERVED His INSPIRED WORD, in a book.

By COMPARISON, the KJV is that BOOK, now.

(others may be dismissed out of hand, as "INTERPRETED" and "TRANSLATED" from
Spurious Bible texts.)

You can choose to believe whatever opinions that you want to, but your personal belief does not make them true. You can be believing opinions that are not true; thereby, deceiving yourself. Your making the claims does not make them become true.

The Scriptures do not state nor teach your opinions. The Bible's doctrine of preservation directly concerns the same exact specific words that were given by inspiration of God to the prophets and apostles, which would be the original-language words of Scripture.

The KJV was translated from multiple, textually-varying, imperfect Bible texts. The Church of England makers of the KJV made use of the imperfect Latin Vulgate of Jerome as one of its varying sources and even borrowed many renderings from the 1582 Roman Catholic Rheims New Testament translated from the Latin Vulgate.
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
Some hold that the KJV is inspired, adhering to the doctrine of double inspiration, declaring the KJV the Word of God, whereas others hold this, that the preserved Word of God is found in one of the Greek manuscripts, or a collection of Greek manuscripts, declaring that no translation into English is perfect. And others hold that only the original biblical writings are the preserved Word of God.

What view do you hold, and what are the arguments in support of your view?
Its as much in English the word of God to us as are the Nasb/Esv/Njkv, no more no less!
 

JD731

Well-Known Member
I remember a pastor at one church - the pastor was KJO.
yet, I remember a few times, he would read a passage and then say
"What this verse means is....."
Why does he have to tell me what it means if the KJ is so easy to understand?

I have heard KJO preachers say their 7 year old child can underhand the Bible

Makes me wonder why you even show up in church to listen to a God ordained Bible teacher of any translation if you already know it all.
 

Salty

20,000 Posts Club
Administrator
... a God ordained Bible teacher ..l.
Lets talk about that pastor.
I was the founding pastor of this church. I did want to see a full time pastor come, as I was in the Army at the time and did spend a bit of time in the field.
Well, a member did have a contact. So "John" did come to candidate.
I sat down with "John" and asked him his salvation testimony.
His answer was that he joined the Navy, got on drugs, God saved him from drugs and he got out of the Navy. A week later we had a meeting with the whole church. Once again - I asked him for his salvation testimony. He repeated to the church what he told me.
I may not know for sure about his salvation - but his answer certainly was questionable. Was he a "God ordained Bible teacher"
 

JD731

Well-Known Member
Since I have weighed in here, I might as well answer the OP.



2. The KJV is the Word of God to the exact extent that it accurately translates the original language documents. One place it is definitely in error is: Exodus 22:28, which says: "Thou shalt not revile the gods, nor curse the ruler of thy people." This rendering endorses idolatry.

The word "gods" is used over and over again in the context of someone who operates outside the will of God, which includes all unsaved. It is not exclusively used this way and often refers to idols and false gods.

Here is what Elohiym said about Adam.

Ge 3:5 For God doth know that in the day ye eat thereof, then your eyes shall be opened, and ye shall be as gods, knowing good and evil.

‘elohiym
AV-God 2346, god 244, judge 5, GOD 1, goddess 2, great 2, mighty 2, angels 1, exceeding 1, God-ward + 04136 1, godly 1; 2606

1) (plural)
1a) rulers, judges
1b) divine ones
1c) angels
1d) gods

2) (plural intensive-singular meaning)
2a) god, goddess
2b) godlike one
2c) works or special possessions of God
2d) the (true) God
2e) God

Ps 82:6 I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High.

Isa 41:23 Shew the things that are to come hereafter, that we may know that ye are gods: yea, do good, or do evil, that we may be dismayed, and behold it together.

Joh 10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?

You see in what application Jesus is applying this prophesy from the OT to the Jewish leaders.

This is the application to be understood in Ex 22:28. The gods are the rulers of other peoples and the ruler of thy people, Israel, is in view here. Two groups. The instruction is to curse neither or to esteem them lightly.

"Thou shalt not revile the gods (430), nor curse the ruler of thy people."

Your conclusion on this verse is a great and thoughtless error.

0430 אלהים ‘elohiym [el-o-heem’
 
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