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Is the new KJV-only interpretation of Matthew 4:4 correct?

Y

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Logos1560 said:
Luke 4:4 would conflict with the new KJV-only interpretation of Matthew 4:4 which tries to suggest that believers have to seek a perfect Bible translation that has every word of God. The issue is not with what Matthew 4:4 states when understood soundly or correctly.

The legitimate issue is with the new KJV-only interpretation of Matthew 4:4 that would in effect condemn gospel of Luke for not including every word that Jesus stated.

Every word from Deuteronomy 8:3 quoted by the Lord Jesus Christ in Matthew 4:4 is not found in the quotation in Luke 4:4. Six individual words [“that proceedeth out of the mouth of God”] spoken by Jesus as found in Matthew 4:4 are not preserved and presented in Luke 4:4.

Is this fact a hint or indication that the new KJV-only interpretation of every word at Matthew 4:4 could be incorrect?

According to the KJV-only interpretation, could early readers of the gospel of Luke who did not have a copy of the gospel of Matthew live by every word of God since Luke does not have six words quoted and stated by Jesus?

Would a just application of KJV-only assertions concerning Matthew 4:4 suggest that the Holy Spirit was wrong to move Luke to omit six of the words stated by Jesus?

Would a consistent application of KJV-only reasoning in effect suggest that Luke 4:4 casts doubt on part of what is stated in Matthew 4:4?

Would a consistent, just application of KJV-only claims and assertions concerning Matthew 4:4 in effect condemn Luke 4:4 for not including and preserving every word that Jesus stated?
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Do we get the actual every word Jesus spoke all of the time, or summary gists of them at times?
 
A

Anon1379

Member
If God required every person to live by every word, then how would anyone do so before 1611? Especially since the kjv has added words in italics that are not in other versions? How are the Russians living by every word? Do they need to learn English? How did people live off of 1 John 5:7 when it wasn't introduced until much later? The KJV 1611 and the 1769 Blaney edition differ. Did people suddenly become much better Christians in 1769. Is every single word of the 1611 important or the 1769? So many questions and I'm assuming no answers from the kjv only crowd.

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37818

37818

Well-Known Member
Logos1560 said:
Luke 4:4 would conflict with the new interpretation that tries to suggest that believers have to seek a every-word Bible translation.

Every word from Deuteronomy 8:3 quoted by the Lord Jesus Christ in Matthew 4:4 is not found in the quotation in Luke 4:4. Six individual words [“that proceedeth out of the mouth of God”] spoken by Jesus as found in Matthew 4:4 are not preserved and presented in Luke 4:4.

Is this fact a hint or indication that the new KJV-only interpretation of Matthew 4:4 could be incorrect? According to the KJV-only interpretation, could early readers of the gospel of Luke who did not have a copy of the gospel of Matthew live by every word of God since Luke does not have six words quoted and stated by Jesus? Would a just application of KJV-only reasoning concerning Matthew 4:4 suggest that the Holy Spirit was wrong to move Luke to omit six of the words stated by Jesus? Would a consistent application of KJV-only reasoning in effect suggest that Luke 4:4 casts doubt on part of what is stated in Matthew 4:4? Would a consistent, just application of KJV-only claims and assertions concerning Matthew 4:4 in effect condemn Luke 4:4 for not including and preserving every word that Jesus stated?
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Regardless, God requires us to live by His every word. Where ever and what ever He has spoken. Ignorance is no excuse.
 
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Wesley Briggman

Wesley Briggman

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
37818 said:
Regardless, God requires us to live by His every word. Where ever and what ever He has spoken. Ignorance is no excuse.
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If so, we are all without hope. But that is not so. God has shown grace to His elect.
[Tit 3:5-7 KJV] 5 Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost; 6 Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour; 7 That being justified by his grace, we should be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life.
 
V

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Logos1560 said:
Some KJV-only authors especially appeal to Matthew 4:4 as justification for a KJV-only view and in order to assert that there must be a every-word perfect Bible.
SNIP

Do KJV-only advocates prove that Matthew 4:4 teaches that there must be a perfect every-word Bible translation? Do they apply their very own statements consistently and justly?
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No, the premise is bogus. The idea is we are to live by every word in our understanding, and not treat scripture like a smorgasbord.
 
Y

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Anon1379 said:
If God required every person to live by every word, then how would anyone do so before 1611? Especially since the kjv has added words in italics that are not in other versions? How are the Russians living by every word? Do they need to learn English? How did people live off of 1 John 5:7 when it wasn't introduced until much later? The KJV 1611 and the 1769 Blaney edition differ. Did people suddenly become much better Christians in 1769. Is every single word of the 1611 important or the 1769? So many questions and I'm assuming no answers from the kjv only crowd.

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Why did God allow for the Vulgate if he knew the KJV was coming much later?
 
L

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
George Antonios said:
Because Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.
I'd say that's about as "necessary" as it gets.
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Your comments indicate that you do not understand and interpret Matthew 4:4 correctly and soundly.

Matthew 4:4 does not make necessary a speculation concerning an every word perfect translation.
 
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