Where do you get some of this stuff? Where does it say that only a few spoke in tongues? vs. 4 Says.. "they were ALL were filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues"
Who is they all? It refers to those in the upper room. And then the question is does they "all" refer to they all (the apostles), or they all (the 120)? Commentators are divided on that question as the context is not quite clear. But of the thousands below the upper room, it is certain that none of them spoke in tongues.
As many as 120 could have been speaking in tongues, and then the multitude gathered together. Why? They heard the strange noise (other languages). And they were confused as to what was going on. They listened more carefully. They realized that every one of them could hear the message in their own mother tongue--their own language wherein they were born. They all knew Greek, but to listen to the message in the language in the nation in which they were born was something else!
Acts 2:6 Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language.
But what you will not grasp is that others than the Jews spoke in tongues. Others than the apostles spoke in tongues!
You misunderstood what I said. The Gentiles that were saved spoke in tongues. This was a sign to Peter and the Jews that he took with him that salvation was for the Jews. It goes along with the vision that Peter had. Remember what God had told him: "Do not call uncommon (or unclean), that which I have called clean). Peter had to change his attitude toward the Gentiles. He would never have stepped foot into the house of a Gentile before this time; would have done everything possible to avoid them. Now the message of salvation has gone out to the Jews, and they see them speaking in tongues. This speaking in tongues is a sign to Peter and the other Jews that salvation has come to the Gentiles also--those that they had previously considered unclean.
Were the Corinthians Jews? Was Paul sent to the Jews or the Gentiles? Was the Holy Spirit poured out Just for the Jews are for all?
The make-up of the Corinthian church has nothing to do with the incident in Acts 19. Acts 19 is a historical event that will never be repeated. These were Jews that were following the teaching of John the Baptist.
The Corinthian church was started by Paul. Paul had led them to the Lord, spent a 18 months living among them, discipling them. They should have known better than this.
I would appreciate it if you will refer back to my testimony before you try to elaborate on it! No where do I lean on JUST my experience! I told you numerous times that...
I went out first to disprove what I am sharing. When I saw in scriptures (WORD) the truth concerning this, because I was in unbelief...I repented and confessed it before God. I did not experience this first! I fought it because of the way I was taught by man. My experience backed up what I believed by faith in the Word. I put it in bold so you will not twist it again! If you are going to elaborate on my testimony at least copy and paste my own words first!
And Josh McDowell went out to prove that the resurrection never happened and that Jesus Christ was a fraud. He came back a saved man.
The difference is that Josh McDowell listened to the evidence. You didn't.
Instead you listened to your experiences, experiences which can be easily disproved by the Word of God. We have disillusioned people (who are very much confused) come to our church from a Charismatic church up the road often. And quite often they are able to speak in tongues but are not saved. They are hanging their hat on an experience hoping that that experience will get them to heaven. They are deluded. Your experience is not of God no matter what you think. The Bible teaches otherwise.
And for more than the third time....The Holy Spirit is available to more than the Jews...and by your own statement above the Jews was shown a sign that it is available to the Gentiles. That does include me!!
The Holy Spirit and tongues are two different things. The Holy Spirit is available to you. If you are saved you received the Holy Spirit at salvation like everyone else. Why are you seeking something else? The gift of tongues was a sign to unbelieving Jews; not a sign to you! Are you an unbelieving Jew? Differentiate between tongues and the Holy Spirit. They are not the same.
You are blinded to what I am saying....
Did Jesus die on the cross for all?
Can you just answer that with a yes or a no?
Yes of course he did.
IF you say yes! Which he did! Then are you saying the WHole world is saved? No, they are not all saved! Yes! He paid the penalty on the cross, but not all believe!
Only those who believe are saved (Acts 10:43; Romans 10:9,10).
This is the same with the Day of Pentecost when the Holy Spirit was poured out for ALL to receive.
The Holy Spirit was not poured on
all flesh at that time. The prophecy of Joel was a partial fulfillment. You need to rightly divide the word of truth. You are not doing that.
Did all receive? No! because not all believe! Does that prove that it was not poured out! NO! Just like the unbelief of others concerning the cross does nulify that Jesus died for all!
Again the Holy Spirit came, but he was not poured out on all flesh. If that were true then all the Muslims would be saved today. Yes or no: Are all Muslims saved today? Is "all flesh" saved today? Were all 100,000 present there at Pentecost saved because the Spirit was on all flesh? The Spirit was not on all flesh!
I just did.
I answered this above! God died for all those SINNERS mentioned above! THe Holy Spirit was poured out for all to receive! Unbelievers will not experience salvation!
As long as you butcher the Word of God and maintain that the Spirit came on ALL FLESH at that time then ALL FLESH should be saved, including Muslims, and in the past people like Hitler and Stalin. But we know that is not true. Therefore your interpretation of Scripture is wrong.
The Ultimate fulfillment of Joel's prophecy will occur during the tribulation, right before the return of Christ. This is when the signs will show in the heavens. (Act 2:19;20; Isa. 13:10; Ezek. 32:7; Mt. 24:29; Rev. 6:12)
You can not deny that Peter referenced Joel concerning that what had just happened was the pouring out of the Holy Spirit just as Jesus promised in 1:8!
Why else would he reference it here?
"But Peter, standing up with the eleven, lifted up his voice, and said unto them, ....spoken by the prophet Joel."
In many places in the Bible there are Scripture that has a partial fulfillment, and some that have a double fulfillment. Some of those are in Matthew 24 and 25, and in Daniel 9:24-27. Matthew speaks of the rapture and of the Second Coming and of the Tribulation all in the same passage.
In Daniel he refers to the destruction of The Temple, the first coming of Christ, and the coming of the Antichrist all in the same passage.
Joel speaks of more than one thing also. He speaks of the event taking place at Pentecost, but also a further event which will take place in the Millennial Kingdom, and the events just preceding it.
No! I just reject your interpretation of scriptures. I let scripture interpret scipture.
It is in history.
You take Scripture out of context.
You ignore scripture given to you.
You string scripture together which are not related to each other.
You do anything but let scripture interpret scripture.
In fact you allow your experience to interpret scripture.
As for history, if it was historically accurate you would be able to demonstrate it, but you can't. No Charismatic has ever been able to give any history of their movement. It is impossible, since we know the starting date is 1905. When did it exist before that date except in paganism. What you believe is not of God but has its origins in paganism.
Wow! I was warned that if they can not defend what they believe in scriptures that the next step would be to attack the person themselves. You have proven this over and over!
I have just given you the facts and where "tongues", the Charismatic brand, has originated from. If you have a problem with it, then do some research. Better yet, leave it. If you can prove the history of it, then do it.
The dark ages were quiet on a lot of doctrine! There was a lot of corruption during that time. It has taken years for God to correct it! The different religions prove this! God can not work without faith! Can He find faith when He returns?
No religion has complete truth!
The RCC can prove its existence but you can't yours. That says something doesn't it. The Lutherans can prove their lineage. The Methodists, theirs. But the Charismatic movement can only be traced back to 1905 and that is a known fact. All such similarities to the Charismatic movement are found in paganism and cults. That also is a fact.
Here is what the Bible says about that:
2 Corinthians 6:14 Be ye not unequally yoked together with unbelievers: for what fellowship hath righteousness with unrighteousness? and what communion hath light with darkness?
15 And what concord hath Christ with Belial? or what part hath he that believeth with an infidel?
16 And what agreement hath the temple of God with idols? for ye are the temple of the living God; as God hath said, I will dwell in them, and walk in
them; and I will be their God, and they shall be my people.
17 Wherefore come out from among them, and be ye separate, saith the Lord, and touch not the unclean
thing; and I will receive you,