I don’t know what word is used in Colossians 4:10 but since the KJV does not say “cousin” but rather says “and Marcus, sister's son to Barnabas”, I expect the word “cousin” was inserted in the later translations to provide equivalent meaning. And, they may not have been cousins, they might have been children of Joseph by a previous marriage.
Col 4:10 Aristarchus my fellowprisoner saluteth you, and Marcus, sister's son to Barnabas, (touching whom ye received commandments: if he come unto you, receive him
(Strongs) G431 ἀνέψιος anepsios an-eps'-ee-os
From G1 (as a particle of union) and an obsolete form νέπος nepos (a brood); properly akin, that is, (specifically) a cousin: - sister’s son.
(G&T)
A better explaination would be that Mary understood that this event would happen immediately....Don't you think that the angel would have given her full details?
(Zenas) This is speculation and arguing from silence, and no that is not the better explanation.
Speculation? It seems far more accurate then your or the ECFs view. I have to ask myself..."If Mary had already decided (or made a vow) to remain a virgin, why would she get married? The answer would be that she had not.
(G&T)
Do you interpret the Scriptures by the CFs or do you interpret the CFs by the Scriptures?
(Zenas) I need all the help I can get and will take it where I find it. The idea that scripture interprets scripture will only go so far.
(Really I havenever found this to be a problem) Can you honestly say you have never consulted a commentary to help you understand scripture? So yes, I give great weight to the writings of the ECF’s because of their relative closeness to the events they are interpreting. I do however, reject them if what they say is manifestly in opposition to scripture. Concerning Mary they are not in opposition to scripture.