KJV 2

[robycop3]

Any Cambridge printing of the King James Bible you can by at any bookstore today is the complete and inerrant words of God.
(Snipped for brevity)

Hi, Mr. Kinney!

I have a Cambridge Edition, straight from Britain, complete with Crown copyright, so I know it's genuine. GUESS WHAT? It has the same goofs & booboos found in any other KJV(NOT "KJB") edition, such as "Easter" in Acts 12:4, "the love of money is THE root of ALL evil" in 1 Tim. 6:10, "Thou shalt not KILL" in Ex. 20:13, & the ADDITION of the words "and shalt be" in Rev. 16:5. (You CANNOT show us ANY ancient Greek ms. of Rev that has those words in that verse.)

So now you're saying older English Bible translations had mistakes in them? Well, what makes you think they were all eliminated in the KJV? The "Easter" goof was carried over from older versions. (Though a prelate or prelates, not the translators may have added it later. No matter HOW it got there, it's still a goof!)

The KJVO myth was invented by Satan to cause strife & dissent among & between congregations. He was able to influence people such as CULT OFFICIAL Dr. Ben Wilkinson, to write pro-KJVO material & a couple who claimed to be Baptist preachers, J. J. Ray, & Dr. D. O. Fuller, to legally but dishonestly plagiarize Dr. W's book. So, the cultic, dishonest origin of the current edition of the KJVO myth proves its Satanic invention.

Texts & manuscripts? GOD PRESERVED ALLOF THEM we have now, & others we haven't found yet. Just recently, some more Dead Sea scrolls were found. Who can prove any of them wrong, as we weren't there when they were made, & we don't know who made most of them, when or where, or what sources they used.

Yes, the KJVO myth is based upon guesswork, & placing one's trust in men, not GOD.

 

[robycop3]

Hi Rick. I DO believe God preserved his words, but they needed to be purified from man made corruptions, whether intentional or accidental.

And don't forget LANGUAGE CHANGES. Those processes are still going on. They did NOT end with the KJV by any means !

God has always known which words are his. And after this purifying process the final product is the English text of the King James Bible.

Until better versions were made.

You, on the other hand, cannot show us a copy of any Bible that you really believe is the preserved, complete and inerrant words of God. You will never do that, and you know you won't do that.

Can YOU? We have pointed out & proven goofs & booboos in the KJV elsewhere in this forum.

You simply have NO complete and inerrant words of God in any Bible you can show us. If you think you do, then how about telling us which one it is or give us a link to where we can see it.

But that is not gonna happen, is it.

And YOU'RE not gonna **PROVE** your KJVO myth, either!

 

[Salty]

Six hour warning -
This tread will be closed no sooner than 642 pm EDT / 342 pm PDT

 

[Will J. Kinney]

Hi, Mr. Kinney!

I have a Cambridge Edition, straight from Britain, complete with Crown copyright, so I know it's genuine. GUESS WHAT? It has the same goofs & booboos found in any other KJV(NOT "KJB") edition, such as "Easter" in Acts 12:4, "the love of money is THE root of ALL evil" in 1 Tim. 6:10, "Thou shalt not KILL" in Ex. 20:13, & the ADDITION of the words "and shalt be" in Rev. 16:5. (You CANNOT show us ANY ancient Greek ms. of Rev that has those words in that verse.)

Yes, the KJVO myth is based upon guesswork, & placing one's trust in men, not GOD.

Roby, we all know you are a version rummaging Bible agnostic who does not believe any bible in any language you can show us is now or ever was the complete and inerrant words of God.


You see "errors" where none exist, and will continue to do so till you die.


Easter is absolutely correct in Acts 12:4. The Greek word paska has two meanings. One is Passover and the other is Easter. Look it up in any Greek dictionary.

If my website still works (it was down earlier) here is why Easter is correct.
https://brandplucked.webs.com/easter.htm

And here is why 1 Timothy 6:10 is right.
Another King James Bible Believer

And Exodus 20:13.

Another King James Bible Believer

And here is why Revelation 16:5 is right in the KJB.

Another King James Bible Believer

Folks, keep firmly in mind the FACT that no one who is not KJB only by default do not believe that any Bible in any language they can show us is in fact the inerrant words of God.

Some few have their faculties unhinged to the degree that they will list 3 or 4 different bible versions that differ among themselves by hundreds or even thousands of words, and different meanings, names and numbers, and try to tell us that they are all inerrant.

They are Humpty Dumpty Christians who make words mean anything they want them to mean.

Just ask them to show you a copy of this inerrant Bible they supposedly believe in and see what they do.

"He that hath ears to hear, let him hear." Luke 8:8

God bless.

 

[robycop3]

Mr. Kinney, I'm interested to see how you explain the FACT that NO ancient Greek manuscript of Revelation contains the words "and shalt be" in Rev. 16:5. Several other KJVOs here have fallen flat on their snoots trying to get by that ADDITION of words in the KJV.

I have seen plenty of evidence that Beza did a "conjectural emendation" in his Textus Receptus edition. He had NO ANCIENT GREEK MS to copy from; apparently he just decided it "sounded good" & added it. But I believe we all know God commanded to NOT add nor subtract from His word, and while those words are doctrinally-correct, they're NOT written in any manuscript at that verse!

While we can't blame the AV makers for that one, it DOES disprove any special inspiration for the KJV, as, if God were providing such inspiration, He would've caused the AV men to have left those words out. (Remember, that's only ONE of many imperfections in the KJV !)

 

[robycop3]

Roby, we all know you are a version rummaging Bible agnostic

Thanks! I was wondering how long it was gonna take you to use your fave incorrect catchphrase!

who does not believe any bible in any language you can show us is now or ever was the complete and inerrant words of God.

All the Scriptural mss are. NO translation is perfect, as all are the products of God's perfect word handled by imperfect men.

You see "errors" where none exist, and will continue to do so till you die.

No, you're as a football coach who calls the samer play over & over even though it fails every time. You don't see errors that have been **PROVEN** by many pundits.

Easter is absolutely correct in Acts 12:4. The Greek word paska has two meanings. One is Passover and the other is Easter. Look it up in any Greek dictionary.

I know what it means TODAY. What matters in Acts is what it meant to LUKE & the recipients of his letter. Remember, pascha is the word JESUS is quoted as using for passover. (Unless you believe He observed Easter! LOL)

If my website still works (it was down earlier) here is why Easter is correct.
https://brandplucked.webs.com/easter.htm

And here is why 1 Timothy 6:10 is right.
Another King James Bible Believer

And Exodus 20:13.

Another King James Bible Believer

And here is why Revelation 16:5 is right in the KJB.

Another King James Bible Believer

I've read all your articles, & I could write a book on their mistakes! (Yes, unfortunately, your site's still down!)

Folks, keep firmly in mind the FACT that no one who is not KJB only by default do not believe that any Bible in any language they can show us is in fact the inerrant words of God.

And ALSO keep in mind that GOD never promised us a simon-pure translation, and that the KJV (NOT "KJB") is far-from-perfect!

Some few have their faculties unhinged to the degree that they will list 3 or 4 different bible versions that differ among themselves by hundreds or even thousands of words, and different meanings, names and numbers, and try to tell us that they are all inerrant.

And most of your "proof" of errors is that they're worded differently from the KJV. Circular reasoning.
"I have a fast red car."
"I have a red fast car."
"I have a car that can go fast & is colored red."
"I have a car colored red that cn go fast."
Same exact message, different words.

They are Humpty Dumpty Christians who make words mean anything they want them to mean.

Yes-we call them "KJVOs".

Just ask them to show you a copy of this inerrant Bible they supposedly believe in and see what they do.

"He that hath ears to hear, let him hear." Luke 8:8

God bless.

Just ask a KJVO to show us any SCRIPTURAL SUPPORT for his/her KJVO myth.

God Bless you as well ! Perhaps He will open your eyes to the falsehood of the KJVO myth some day! (I bear you no ill will. I hope all goes well for you & yours, except in the matter of hawking a false doctrine.)

 

[Yeshua1]

Roby, we all know you are a version rummaging Bible agnostic who does not believe any bible in any language you can show us is now or ever was the complete and inerrant words of God.


You see "errors" where none exist, and will continue to do so till you die.


Easter is absolutely correct in Acts 12:4. The Greek word paska has two meanings. One is Passover and the other is Easter. Look it up in any Greek dictionary.

If my website still works (it was down earlier) here is why Easter is correct.
Another King James Bible Believer

And here is why 1 Timothy 6:10 is right.
Another King James Bible Believer

And Exodus 20:13.

Another King James Bible Believer

And here is why Revelation 16:5 is right in the KJB.

Another King James Bible Believer

Folks, keep firmly in mind the FACT that no one who is not KJB only by default do not believe that any Bible in any language they can show us is in fact the inerrant words of God.

Some few have their faculties unhinged to the degree that they will list 3 or 4 different bible versions that differ among themselves by hundreds or even thousands of words, and different meanings, names and numbers, and try to tell us that they are all inerrant.

They are Humpty Dumpty Christians who make words mean anything they want them to mean.

Just ask them to show you a copy of this inerrant Bible they supposedly believe in and see what they do.

"He that hath ears to hear, let him hear." Luke 8:8

God bless.

Did God have his word before the Kjv? why MUST we have an inerrant bible to have the word of the lord to us?

 

[JonC]

Greetings to all. Lots of people SAY they believe "God's Word is perfectly preserved", and then they refer to a list of different Bibles based on different texts (thousands of words found in some, while omitted in others) with completely different names and numbers and meanings found in multiple verses (hundreds of them). This is much like saying God's words are preserved in Webster's Unabridged Dictionary. They are all mixed up and out of order and found with lots of other words that are not God's words, but, Hey, they're in there somewhere.

And what exactly is this referred to "the source text"? There is not a person alive today who can show us a copy of "the" Hebrew and much less "the" Greek that anybody really believes is the complete and inerrant words of God.

Lots of Christians want to give us the impression that they really believe in the inerrancy of "the" Bible, but if you ask them to show you a copy of this inerrant Bible in ANY language that they profess to believe in, they cannot and will not do it.


James White doesn't have one. Rick Norris doesn't have one. Nor do John MacArthur, nor Dan Wallace, nor James Price nor John Piper, nor John MacArthur. Not one of these men will EVER show you a copy of any Bible they really believe is the complete, preserved and inerrant words of God. Just ask them.

What we have today is a Bible Babble Buffet with Every Man Being His Own Authority when it comes to what should or should not be in this "bible" they kinda, sorta, believe in, but don't think is inerrant.

The only people I know who really DO believe in an inspired, preserved and inerrant words of God Bible are the King James Bible believers. This is by faith, but it is by no means a blind faith. I believe I can show many examples of how God himself has set his mark on this Bible in history like no other.

There are things about the King James Bible that are not true about any other; here are some of them.

Reasons Why The King James Bible Is The Absolute Standard - God's Historic Witness to the Truth.

Another King James Bible Believer

"He that hath ears to hear, let him hear." Luke 8:8
God bless.

The source text is the text being translated (with the KJV it is the TR).

Do you believe my Greek text is less the Word of God than the newer KJV?

 

[JonC]

Hi JonC. I do not believe there was an inerrant Bible before the King James Bible, and I don't believe you do either. We are talking about inerrancy. There is no way the so called Greek Septuagint is the inerrant words of God.

I can give you lots of examples if your wish.
Nor is the Latin, nor Luther's German bible. There are some very good Bibles out there in foreign languages, but none that I know of that are inerrant.

God never promised to give every nation or language a perfect Bible, but he did promise to preserve his words and he refers to "the book of the LORD" and that heaven and earth will pass away but his words would not pass away.

I don't think that at this point you can show us any Bible in any language that you honestly believe is the complete and inerrant words of God. Inerrant. 100% true, both textually and in meaning.

God bless.

I do not understand your argument. If the TR contained errors then the KJV should as well. Same with the Coverdale Bible as the KJV is largely a revision of that Bible.

But you are mistaken about my belief. I know of errors (translation errors) in the KJV. And the KJV is not the Scriptures but a translation of Scriptures in the English language.

But I also view a second special revelation of Scriprure as a type of heresy (the principle has given rise to many cults).

 

[Will J. Kinney]

The source text is the text being translated (with the KJV it is the TR).

Do you believe my Greek text is less the Word of God than the newer KJV?

Hi JonC. You have two problems here. First of all, you have NO single Greek text or manuscript you can show us that you really believe is the complete and inerrant words of God. Your Critical (Condition) Text is constantly changing and even they tell us it is not final. You simply have NO inerrant Bible to believe in that you can show us.


That is just where you are right now. And the second thing I have often seen. Those who do not believe any bible is inerrant, often capitalize the word Word of God when referring to the Bible. The Word of God is the Lord Jesus, and the word of God is the inspired words that tell us about who the Word of God is and what he did and taught and how he redeemed his people from our sins. Without the word of God we know nothing about the Word of God.


And many of the fake bible version pervert the true revelation of who the Word of God is.


Here are a couple examples.

Many modern version proponents tell us “No Fundamental Doctrines Are Changed”

But this is not true at all.

In direct contrast to the King James Bible, many modern versions teach the following false doctrines -


God can be DECEIVED by men (NASB, NET, Legacy Standard Bible)
https://brandplucked.webs.com/ps7836deceivegod.htm


The Son of God had “ORIGINS from ancient times” (NIV, ESV, NET)

http://brandplucked.webs.com/micah52heb211origin.htm


The KJB teaches that "Messiah (was) cut off, but NOT FOR HIMSELF”,
but versions like the ESV, NIV, NASB teach that “the anointed one shall be cut off AND SHALL HAVE NOTHING."
http://brandplucked.webs.com/dan926messiahcutoff.htm


Jesus LIED about what he was going to do. (ESV, NASB, NIV)
http://brandplucked.webs.com/john78didjesuslie.htm


There was a day when Jesus BECAME the Son of the Father (NIV, NET, Holman)
http://brandplucked.webs.com/acts1333thisdaybegotte.htm


"He that hath ears to hear, let him hear." Luke 8:8
God bless.

 

[Michael Hollner]

I do not understand your argument. If the TR contained errors then the KJV should as well. Same with the Coverdale Bible as the KJV is largely a revision of that Bible.

But you are mistaken about my belief. I know of errors (translation errors) in the KJV. And the KJV is not the Scriptures but a translation of Scriptures in the English language.

But I also view a second special revelation of Scriprure as a type of heresy (the principle has given rise to many cults).

'If the TR contained errors then the KJV should as well'

The KJV translators took care of the 1.0% variants in the TR editions and refined them in the KJV.

And Jon, why do these posts close down? Is this some kind of censorship?

 

[Michael Hollner]

Six Hour Warning
This thread will be closed sometime after 9:05 PM Pacific.

Why is it closing? is there a reason for this?

 

[Will J. Kinney]

Mr. Kinney, I'm interested to see how you explain the FACT that NO ancient Greek manuscript of Revelation contains the words "and shalt be" in Rev. 16:5. Several other KJVOs here have fallen flat on their snoots trying to get by that ADDITION of words in the KJV.

I have seen plenty of evidence that Beza did a "conjectural emendation" in his Textus Receptus edition. He had NO ANCIENT GREEK MS to copy from; apparently he just decided it "sounded good" & added it. But I believe we all know God commanded to NOT add nor subtract from His word, and while those words are doctrinally-correct, they're NOT written in any manuscript at that verse!

While we can't blame the AV makers for that one, it DOES disprove any special inspiration for the KJV, as, if God were providing such inspiration, He would've caused the AV men to have left those words out. (Remember, that's only ONE of many imperfections in the KJV !)

Hi Roby. I don't think you actually read my article I gave you on Revelation 16:5. There is quite a bit of support for this reading, but you did not actually read the article.

Another King James Bible Believer

There is some textual support and early witness to the reading found in the KJB. It is a minority reading, to be sure, but for every one minority reading in the KJB there are 20 of them in the fake bible versions you like so much, but don't really believe are inerrant.

Had you actually read the article you would see that your Critical Text editors make changes in their Greek text, and the one they just did in the Nestle-Aland 28th edition in 2 Peter 3:10 which is based on ZERO Greek manuscripts.

Plus your Vatican Versions like the ESV, NIV, NASB several times reject the clear Hebrew readings, and sometimes even when the so called Septuagint agrees with the Hebrew, and will go with one foreign language reading found in the Syriac.

So, is this type of thing OK when YOU guys do it, but not OK when the greatest Bible ever printed does it? Is that how it works, Roby?

See what your modern scholarship is really like here-
2 Peter 3:10 and modern “scholarship”

http://brandplucked.webs.com/na27th28theditions.htm

 

[Michael Hollner]

Can you demonstrate that the KJV translators who believed the Church of England's doctrine of baptismal regeneration and who persecuted people for their beliefs were "true men of God"

Should you blindly accept all their Church of England doctrines as you blindly accept all their inconsistent textual criticism decisions and translation decisions?

The only thing I do 'blindly' is I have blind faith in the word of God and His promises of divine preservation, even in a translation (Psalms 12:6-7) KJV.

 

[Michael Hollner]

Did God have his word before the Kjv? why MUST we have an inerrant bible to have the word of the lord to us?

Because God said so, and everthing God does is perfect.

My NASB is the complete and inerrant Words of God.

So the NASB20 finally got it right in the year 2021? Does this mean there will be no more updates?

 

[Salty]

Six hour warning -
This tread will be closed no sooner than 642 pm EDT / 342 pm PDT

This thread is closed

 

[JonC]

Hi JonC. You have two problems here. First of all, you have NO single Greek text or manuscript you can show us that you really believe is the complete and inerrant words of God. Your Critical (Condition) Text is constantly changing and even they tell us it is not final. You simply have NO inerrant Bible to believe in that you can show us.


That is just where you are right now. And the second thing I have often seen. Those who do not believe any bible is inerrant, often capitalize the word Word of God when referring to the Bible. The Word of God is the Lord Jesus, and the word of God is the inspired words that tell us about who the Word of God is and what he did and taught and how he redeemed his people from our sins. Without the word of God we know nothing about the Word of God.


And many of the fake bible version pervert the true revelation of who the Word of God is.


Here are a couple examples.

Many modern version proponents tell us “No Fundamental Doctrines Are Changed”

But this is not true at all.

In direct contrast to the King James Bible, many modern versions teach the following false doctrines -


God can be DECEIVED by men (NASB, NET, Legacy Standard Bible)
https://brandplucked.webs.com/ps7836deceivegod.htm


The Son of God had “ORIGINS from ancient times” (NIV, ESV, NET)

http://brandplucked.webs.com/micah52heb211origin.htm


The KJB teaches that "Messiah (was) cut off, but NOT FOR HIMSELF”,
but versions like the ESV, NIV, NASB teach that “the anointed one shall be cut off AND SHALL HAVE NOTHING."
http://brandplucked.webs.com/dan926messiahcutoff.htm


Jesus LIED about what he was going to do. (ESV, NASB, NIV)
http://brandplucked.webs.com/john78didjesuslie.htm


There was a day when Jesus BECAME the Son of the Father (NIV, NET, Holman)
http://brandplucked.webs.com/acts1333thisdaybegotte.htm


"He that hath ears to hear, let him hear." Luke 8:8
God bless.

I mean I use a Greek Bible.

That said, the KJV did not rely solely on original language sources (they were guided by the Church ofcEngkand, used the best they had available to them but also RCC translations and previous English translations).

Bottom line is you are asking me to believe that for two thousand years God's Word was not preserved and the 1611 translation (what your 18th Century KJV relied upon) was based not on the Word of God but on a corrupt TR...yet God chose to reveal His Word to English speaking people while the rest of the world looked on.

That is simply too far fetched and unbiblical.

 

[JonC]

KJV3

 

[Squire Robertsson]

Why is it closing? is there a reason for this?

Please note the sticky, "Thread Closures".

 

[Salty]

Why is it closing? is there a reason for this?

because it has reached its limit of posts

NOTE: THIS THREAD IS CLOSED -