Lordship Salvation?

Only if you redefine the word to suit your theology. Nowhere does Strongs refer to eternal as 1000 years.

 

No where in scripture is "eternal" limited to 1000 yrs. And the Kingdom of God is not limited to that neither. The Greek word for Kingdom of God is basileia. And it speaks to the right to rule or authority not the physical kingdom. There are two greek words for eternal. The first is Aidios which means everlasting. The second is Aionios which means eternal in the sense of no begining and no end. it takes some real gymnastics to place the words "eternal life" into the 1000 years. There is no context in which one could make that happen. Maybe folks should stay away from chitwood and study scripture for themselves.

 

Well, we are getting there (painfully) :BangHead: in the "clearing things up Department", I hope, but we still have a few yards to go, I think.

Where does Scripture say anything about what motives are 'involved' or 'necessary' for salvation?? None that I find.

I believe there is one thing, and one thing only, that is necessary from us in order to receive eternal life, i.e. salvation. Wanna' guess what it is? On second thought, I will answer that myself. That 'one thing' is to receive it. And that 'receiving' is done by believe/faith/repent/repentance, and that alone. That is all the same thing, BTW, with repent being the 'flip side', so to speak, of believe. "metanoeO" and "pisteuO" are the two verbs so rendered in this manner.

Again, please think about what you are saying, and think it through, carefully. It helps keep down confusion, and as Scripture says, does not lead to 'the trumpet giving an uncertain call.'

It is getting late, Language Cop has already turned in, and I'm tired, so I might post something I did not really intend to say. But thankfully I did not here (With the second try!). G'nite all.

Ed

 

God can't require one to "believe" that would be works.

 

Guess I did say something I did not really intend. I should have said "necessary" instead of "require". I'm gonna' edit the last post to correct that. Thanks!

Ed

 

In answer to the bolded part......I agree. Nothing is involved for salvation other than to believe. I think you have just misunderstood what I was saying, which I take the blame for. Sometimes I don't make myself clear.

No Lordship salvation.

No works salvation.

Savation is by faith alone, in Christ alone.

Salvation = faith + nothing.

Are we clear? :laugh:

 

I didn't write the English or Greek Dictionary. I just quoted the definition right out of both. Just because you refuse to accept that the word's definition varys in degree according to context, doesn't mean that I am "redefining" words.

Do you honestly believe that if the man was not already saved that selling his goods for the poor was the way to salvation? Talk about a works- based salvation.

The kingdom is the context, not absolute-eternity.

I'll tell you what. Usually, when something is true it just makes everything else start to fit into place. So I challenge you, as you study your Bible, just watch for references to the "Kingdom," and see how consistently faith-plus-works is associated with entrance or rank therin.

Then watch for the born-again experience, or becoming a Christian. Watch how consistently faith-without-works is associated with receiving it as a free gift.

 

You could alsp pop off and say unequivocally that "no where in scripture is 'for ever' limited to one man's lifetime."

But you would be wrong.

 

What you didnt do is use the greek word in the passsage. If you will do that then your theology will have to change.

 

This has already been discussed. If that's all you get out of this passage, you have missed the point.

The greek word for eternal in this context means forever. You can say it means 1000 years 'til the cows come home, but it still means forever.

 

What is the difference?

 

The doggone Greek word means "Age-lasting" too! That's why the translators decided to use an English word that meant "age-lasting" to translate it into English. (Pretty smart huh?)


SS Craig explains better than either Chitwood or I do.

http://www.schoettlepublishing.com/booksonline/craig/eternallife.htm

 

duplicate post

 

The problem you are having is that you are using the wrong greek word. Aion is not the greek word in the passage we are speaking of. The correct greek word is "aionios". While Aion is the root of the word the meaning and context is changed when ios is added. I know what gymanstics chitwood and craig use to manipilate scrripture. the ignoring of the "ios" is just one example.

 

Yes It means "Forever."

Just like "forever" means "forever" in Exodus 21:6.

You cannot squeeze more than 1000 years out of an Kingdom age that lasts 1000 years. Because after the 1000 years are finished, the "Cows will come home," and a new age/world/eon/aion will begin, and with it a new context for the word "eternal life".

But this is not the age in question. The context dictated that the age in question is the kingdom age, which is limited to 1000 years.

 

The NAS New Testament Greek Lexicon
Strong's Number: 166
Original Word Word Origin
aionioß from (165)
Transliterated Word TDNT Entry
Aionios 1:208,31
Phonetic Spelling Parts of Speech
ahee-o'-nee-os Adjective

Definition
without beginning and end, that which always has been and always will be
without beginning
without end, never to cease, everlasting

Lacy, where are you getting the phrase "age lasting"?

Again, the word "eternal" as used in Luke 18:18
A ruler questioned Him, saying, "Good Teacher, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?"

This word has a Strongs reference #166 as I posted above, which you cannot deny meaning forever, without end. It's right there in black and white. It does NOT mean 1000 years or any other specified number of years.

 

Grrrrrrr!!!!!

Aion means "an age," a limited period, whether long or short, though often of indefinite length!!!!!!


Aionios means "age-lasting", "of the age," "age-long,"


Gymnastics? Look, it's the same in English or Greek. Rummaging back and forth from one language to the other neither changes that fact nor makes us appear any smarter.

Lacy

 

She begins with using the greek word aion which is # 165 in the strongs. and it is not the greek word used in the passage. Then she uses human reason to say that the translators used the english dictionary to translate with so it leaves her (or rather craig) the option of looking to a dictionary that phrases the word (that is incorrect to begin with)that fits the presupposition. Pure eisegesis

 

No mam. neither the word age nor lasting are involved in the definition of aionios.

 

Just some casual cutting and pasting to challenge your nigh-
infallible "Strongs Concordance".