Just saw this, so I have not been involved in this debate and am not familiar with all the paths this thread has gone down... hope I am not repeating.
I see that Hope of Glory commented on the aorist tense used in Acts 16:31. That's a strong argument for those who say that faith must endure. I agree that this is evidence that any continuing is not assumed, though to say that the aorist tense is punctiliar (point-in-time) is perhaps a little strong. The aorist tense essentially just says that something happened, without saying much about how - in the indicative mood.
But OTOtherH, the present tense is much abused. True, it is linear (not continuous), in general, though that only talks about the kind of action at the moment of the action. It says nothing about its duration, that it endures forever.
For example, I could say that I was playing catch with one of my sons outside at 2 PM. No one would assume that I would still be doing so at midnight!
Also, the present tense is linear in Greek. There is no present tense that is punctiliar. There is the imperfect tense form of past tense which is linear, and the aorist form of past tense which is punctiliar as well as the perfect tense which has aspects of both. We don't have that in either the present or future tense. So think about it:
how could someone indicate some sort of punctiliar action in the present? It would be impossible. Are you going to tell me that it is not possible to describe point-in-time kind of present tense action?! It would be impossible to describe someone hitting one nail with a hammer - impossible.
So what has happened is that
in the indicative mood that the present tense performs a sort of double duty.
It CAN be used to indicate punctiliar kind of action, as well as linearity in action. Fact.
Let me give an example of this that I've seen Zane Hodges use:
John 1:12 But to all who have received him (Aorist) – those who believe (present articular participle) in his name – he has given the right to become God’s children.
The phrase "all who received Him" is clearly equated with "those who believe in His name." The 1st is aorist and the 2nd is present tense. Obviously if we received Christ we did so at a point in time. Hence we also believed in Him at a point in time. I submit that the present tense in John 1:12 is punctiliar. Nothing else makes sense - context. In the indicative mood, kind of action is not so critical as in the other moods. Such claims that faith must be linear - enduring forever in fact - are based on 1st-year Greek text books. Look at the more advanced ones. That is simply not how it works.
Our eternal life is based upon coming to believe in Him. Let's not make too much of the tense. It happened at some point in history. We cannot use the present tense to say anything about the length of the duration of the believing - that's misusing the Greek tense. Y
ou can check this out in AT Robertson's Greek grammar, BTW, as well as in Wallace's grammar ("Beyond the Basics"). I can provide the specfic pages, if someone is interested.
So the question is whether if one stops believing if they are still "saved." Let's consider it. Some say that those who stop believing never actually believed in the first place. My reaction to that is that either we believed or we did not. Only God knows definitely, of course. But according to 1 John 5:11-13 John expects those who have been re-born to have absolute confidence that they
have gained eternal life. This is based on simply knowing that we have trusted in Jesus Christ. There can be no genuine assurance of salvation in such a philosophy that says our believing must endure to the end. That's very sad. John Calvin said that "assurance is of the essence of salvation." IOW, if we believed in Christ, the natural result will be assurance. That is why we must be very careful not to give someone who has just been saved that assurance - allow the Spirit to give them assurance.
I think we need to think about something else... When someone has trusted in Christ according to 2 Corinthains 5:17 they are a new creation - the old
has passed away and the new
has come. Either that's true, or it is not. If it's true then it absolutely must be based on something that happened at a point in time. In John 5:24 Jesus said that a person who has believed in Jesus Christ has "crossed over" from death into life. He will not come into judgment. Period.
The issue I have with the LS position here is that it is wishy-washy. Either we are saved based on faith, that occured at a point in time, or we are saved by faith that endures - and hence we cannot ever know until we stand before Christ that we have gained eternal life. Only based on what the apostle John said in 1 John 5 above, I think he would have a big problem with this.
So don't let anyone put you off by saying that the present tense is linear (or continuous). In the indicative mood, it absolutely can be either punctiliar or linear - context will be key. And it absolutely does not imply that the action endures for a long time. And obviously, when we trusted in Christ (at a point in time, right?) we became a child of God. God did it. If our salvation depends on lasting faith, then we either did not become a child of God - God did not regenerate us - or our salvation is dependent upon a faith that endures - meaning it performs works - that is simply put,
salvation by works. I realize that no LS adherant would agree, and that is not what they mean, nor do I mean to imply that they teach a salvation by faith plus works - they do not. But logically, what else can be concluded? It's very fuzzy. I think our Lord wants it to be crystal clear. I am convinced that He wants us to have convictions that we ARE children of God based upon faith at a point-in-time.
We can't have salvation (or justification) based on faith alone, and also have it based on a faith that never ends. I understand the logic that assumes that if someone really trusted in Christ, they will always trust in Him. But realistically, we all struggle with our faith from time to time. If John the Baptizer later doubted whether Jesus was really the Messiah, then it can happen to us. And don't try to tell me that John never really believed earlier! He was saved! Period. When he said, "Behold the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world" is his faith not clear? But when we then tell someone that this means they may not have ever really believed, what does that do to their assurance?
IMO if we seriously acknowledge that when a person has trusted in Christ that God has changed him - he has become a child of God. He is not the same. God did it. We simply believed. And because we are now children of God there will be changes - there will be works evidencing what God did. But we need to be very careful about saying that we must endure to the end in such works, or faith, otherwise we never really believed. We must not assume that genuine faith never ends or that we will continue to grow in Christ throughout our lives. Paul referred to Demas and Mark who began to follow the world - getting caught up in it. Mark came back to following Christ closely - Paul said that he would be useful to him. Demas was also saved. Do you really think that Paul would have used someone in ministry who was not a believer?! And the scriptures do not tell us if Demas ever came back to following Christ.
Some Christians are allowing the Spirit to cause them to grow in their sanctification, and others are not so faithful. Those who are faithful will be rewarded. But Paul talked about carnal ("fleshly" - literally) as well as spiritual Christians. He also spoke of the natural person, who is not saved. (1 Corinthians 2 and 3) Some Christians are not spiritual. (See Hebrews 5:11-14 as well.)
Nuf' said.
Thx,
FA