PreachTony
Active Member
**NOTE: If this thread is in the wrong forum, I respectfully request the mods to move it to the proper one.
I will be using the names of a fellow BB member in this OP. I do not mean this in a derogatory way. Instead I am relating what he has written, and how it relates to what I'm trying to discern.**
In another thread, Brother convicted1 made this statement:
I replied as such:
I'm curious what other think about this notion. If man is only able to repent because God allows him to repent, this how can unrepentant man reasonably be held accountable for his sin, seeing as the means of escaping that sin was never presented to that man?
I hope for reasonable, civil discussion and debate, though I do worry that some folks simply only want to rile up others.
I will be using the names of a fellow BB member in this OP. I do not mean this in a derogatory way. Instead I am relating what he has written, and how it relates to what I'm trying to discern.**
In another thread, Brother convicted1 made this statement:
No, not in the least. All men all required to repent(Acts 17:30), and repentance is a gift of God, yet not all will receive this gift, Brother SW.
The command for us, "Be ye holy even as I am holy", applies to everyone. Yet, none of us can attain this status. Yet we're still commanded to be holy, and God holds us to it, too.
God commanded the Jews to keep the Law, knew they couldn't, and they died when they broke the Law.
I replied as such:
And this is the biggest issue I have with the Calvinist position. Man is required by God to repent, and repentance is a gift of God, therefore God must give us the gift in order for us to repent, yet God withholds the gift from some people, while still requiring them to repent, and He then punishes them for failing to do something He never allowed them to do in the first place.
How can you logically and objectively hold someone accountable for "freely rejecting" Jesus (as you stated in the second Calvinist sermon thread, C1) when that man never had the option/choice to "freely accept" Christ? The ability to "freely reject", by reason of logic, necessitates the ability to "freely accept." One cannot exist without the other. Otherwise you have to state that man never had the option to reject or accept Christ, meaning man never had any will of his own at any time.
So if fallen man is bound by a sin nature to always reject God unless God moves within him and enables/regenerates him unto belief, then is it safe to say that pre-fall man, Adam in the Garden, was of the opposite nature? After all, it is by reason of the fall that we are separated from God, so it stands to reason that pre-fall we were not separated from God. If Man has no will of his own, how did Adam choose to sin in the Garden? How was Job found to be perfect and upright if his sin nature should have rendered him as lowly as everyone else?
I'm curious what other think about this notion. If man is only able to repent because God allows him to repent, this how can unrepentant man reasonably be held accountable for his sin, seeing as the means of escaping that sin was never presented to that man?
I hope for reasonable, civil discussion and debate, though I do worry that some folks simply only want to rile up others.