You accpet the hyperbole translation then? Seems so. On what grounds do you translate it as such? You have yet to even justify μισέω rendered as "love less" here. Is ἠγάπησεν really "love less" from the same passage? If this passage is hyperbole, what keeps one from rendering it as such. You refuse to address ANYTHING that causes you a problem. Pretending that no one asked it does not make it go away.Will the disinformation poster quote me saying "I did not change the meaning?" Nope, he made that up!
And how does this poster know what the intended meaning of John was. He doesn't. But he is saying the interpretation of the translation in the NASB differs from the interpretation from the translation that does not translate it as hyperbole. My point exactly.
What I showed is that fallen people seek God and trust in Jesus, just as those of Matthew 23:13 and all those added to the church in Acts.
Needlessly Loose translations cannot be supported. They are indeed needless.
Why were not several verses listed that need to be loosely translated? Because there are none!!
Let's review:
1) Many examples were provided where modern translations did not minimize the number of different English words or phrases used to translate one source language word meaning. And some of these choices deviated from the historical word meaning being supposedly translated. One poster referred to this practice as a "full on paraphrase."
2) Many examples were provided where modern translations used the same English word or phrase to translate several different source language words. It appears little or no effort was made to minimize this issue.
3) A few examples were provided where modern translations used ambiguous words or phrases which allow mistaken doctrine to creep in unnoticed.
4) A few examples were provided where modern translations did not minimize the scope of a statement, allowing an expansionist view to add to scripture.
The case is closed, modern translations contain needlessly loose translation choices. And those defending the loose translations have provided no evidence (thus an empty sack) for the necessity of those loose translations.
How does Van know when John is exaggerating or being straight forward? You have to have grounds for rendering μισέω as love less. That is not the natural meaning.
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