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Read the posting rules.Posted by Ransom:
the King Jimmy
The MV crowd will not refer to the KJVOs as "cults," "heretics," "sacrilegious," etc...nor refer to the KJV in derisive terms such as "King Jimmy's Bible," etc.
If you have a problem with any of these basic rules of civility and Christian courtesy, you know where the door is. If you violate them, you will be SHOWN where the door is.
These factors have everything to do with KJVO position (of which you are now appear to be in denial, but that's OK, we've all been there). Because these very factors of the translators personalities and fallibility, Church affiliation and “Alexandrian” bent are the fiery darts which are aimed at MV supporters.People here argue the label and disregard the truth. Focus is almost always turned upon the KJV translators, the Anglican Church, Rome, and the apocrypha, to which has nothing whatsoever to do with this topic. Smokescreens is all this is, to divert one's attention away from the truth and topic at hand.
This is not the stand of the KJV translators themselves. They indicated that all translations ARE the Word of God, even the “meanest” of them. In fact they spoke highly of the RCC Latin Vulgate and RCC “Saint Jerome” and his work (the Latin Vulgate) and they included some of his unique readings in the AV from the Vulgate as well as the inclusion of the "Alexandrian" RCC Apocrypha in the First Edition of the AV (which according to the KJVO double-standard should have introduced “poison to the well” into the AV, but again they get a pass).I don't care what the Latin Vulgate says, and I don't need to know what it says. The Vulgate got it wrong in 2 Peter 1:19. The word of God says that it is Lucifer in Isaiah 14:12 and day star in 2 Peter 1:19. The Latin Vulgate is not my authority, the word of God is.
Again, neither do you since there are hundreds of differences between the 1611 AV First Edition and the refined AV 1769 Edition. According to KJVO logic “things which are different are not the same”, therefore only one of the several revisions (1611-1853) and/or editions (Oxford, Cambridge, Nelson) can be the “actual” words of God. The number and gravity of the corrections is not the issue. That there is ONE official difference between any two editions of the Authorised Version makes them NOT the same according to KJVO philosophy, the AV getting a pass however.Then you have a real problem on your hands. You have no final authority in your christian life/walk. You believe that no translation is the very words of God, and that God does not have the power, nor ability to provide it, you are in serious jeopardy of having no final authority in your life.
Again where would you like to start using this very criteria for the AV? Omissions and additions are common in the AV not only compared to the TR but between the several revisions/editions or else there would never have been another AV after the 1611AVBy the way, you have no scriptural authority to condone the omitting/adding to God's words, as it is condemned in His words to us to do so.
Regardless of the value of labels (of which the Word of God abounds against those in error) you have indeed labeled others by innuendo comparing your superiour spirituality against others here on the BB. In fact you have published a litany of “You do..I do not”.You may adhere to the labels of men, however I do not. They cause nothing but strife and misunderstanding regarding this issue. You may bow down to what man has placed upon you, but I will not, for what they label me as is irrelevant to this issue.
Let's see. Michelle says she does not adhere to the labels of men. I don't think she is telling the truth, so let's check her out.Originally posted by michelle:
You may adhere to the labels of men, however I do not.
Might I add that you have accused others (namely me) of not loving the Word of God or even God Himself.It helps to put things into context before you accuse me of doing something disobediant as a christian.
Presuming Godly providence in translations, apparently He did via the NIV.Originally posted by michelle:
If God saw it was not appropriate rendering of his inspired word for us, He would have seen fit to have it corrected soon thereafter. He did not.
Oh please! We've been in the last days since Jesus left the Earth some 1,980 or so years ago. Your statement is a translational straw man. No one's saying it means "something else". From what I gather, it doesn't appear that the KJV translators meant for it to refer to Satan. They meant for it to refer to the "day starre". People who claim that it means "Satan" are the ones who are saying it's something else.Originally posted by michelle:
Now in these last days, we are told that it means something else.