It is obvious that Biblicist is trying to prove Irresistible Grace with John 6:44 but it is not working.
It is working and has worked becasue it has driven you from the context to FLEE the context and JUMP to other contexts in order to pervert them.
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It is obvious that Biblicist is trying to prove Irresistible Grace with John 6:44 but it is not working.
It is working and has worked becasue it has driven you from the context to FLEE the context and JUMP to other contexts in order to pervert them.
No, that is called looking at and comparing the whole of scripture, and not isolating single verses to attempt to proof text a fallacy as is your practice.
Nowhere in John 6 does it say those drawn "can come" but it only says denies those not drawn "can come."
44 No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.
My point exactly! When John 17:2 and John 6:37-39 are considered together as they both contain the very same "given" people to Christ by the Father, then it will be clearly seen that they are "given" by the Father FOR THE PURPOSE that they "SHALL" come to Christ so that Christ can give "eternal life TO AS MANY AS GIVEN HIM" by the Father.
Hence, this is an elect people BEFORE THE INCARNATION (v. 38) given to Christ to come to Christ for eternal life.
Given is used in two different contexts in John 6.
A. there are those "given to Christ" by the Father. (A highly qualified list that includes seeing, believing, learning, coming to Christ etc).
vs 39
39 And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which He hath given Me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
There is no text that says "The Father has given ALL mankind To CHRIST".
B. Then There is that which the Father "gives the lost" person. It is the case of the lost person to whom it is "Given" to come to Christ by the Father. "All Drawn" can come to Christ according to vs 44.
44 No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.
But not all DO come that are drawn. To get the "all drawn DO come to Christ" we need to find a Calvinist someplace and quote him/her
It is possible that in the Father's drawing of that person (and He draws ALL mankind) He is said to have "given that person" the ability to come to Christ. Whether that is a qualified form (that takes into account foreknowledge) or that is an unqualified form that is equal to the "Drawing of ALL mankind" is yet to be stated.
65 And he said, Therefore said I unto you, that no man can come unto me, except it were given unto him of my Father.
And of course God draws "ALL MANKIND unto Him" John 12:32.
=========================
The OP effort so far appears to be in masking the difference between that which the Father has "Given to Christ" and that which the Father "Gives to the Lost" through the "Drawing of all mankind unto Him".
The 'Drawing of all mankind to him" is unqualified. That which the Father "has given to Christ" is highly qualified via foreknowledge.
You are intentionally ignoring the immediate context which shows that John 6:37-40 is given as an EXPLANATORY CONTRAST to the response of those persons and their reactions described in verse 36.
1. Those in verse 36 both saw and believed not and thus did not come to Christ by faith (v. 35).
2. The reason is they had not been given by the Father to come to Christ
Biblicist said:5. He is still addressing those in verse 36 when he continues to speak in verses 41-46. They were not "of all" given by the Father and they are not drawn by the Father and the proof is that they do not come to the Son.
Biblicist said:6. The proof that your interpretation of John 6:44-45 is wrong is that even those who EXTERNALLY hear the gospel, taught and learned the gospel and profess the gospel in baptism ("disciples") can still remain in "unbelief" right "from the beginning" of their profession which demands John 6:44-45 is not fulfiled by EXTERNAL hearing, teaching, learning or professing.
In this thread you have been unable to respond to the contextual based reasons I provided to prove that what you claim was "given" to them in John 6:63 is precisely what Christ denies the Father gave them in John 6:65. Hence, your interpretation of John 6:44-45 is contrary to Christ's understanding of those verses because He denies in verse 65 what you claim in verse 63 was given. Period end of story! Your interpretation of John 6:44-45 you propose in verse 63 is directly contradicted by Christ in verse 65.
Originally Posted by BobRyan![]()
"All Drawn" can come to Christ according to vs 44.
Even your argument will have to concede that from vs 44 we have the fact that no one "can" come to Christ except those drawn.
And it would be impossible to then argue "those drawn cannot come to Christ".
Surely that point is agreed upon.
The point left in debate is your insistence that all drawn will come - which the text does not say.
in Christ,
Bob
Again, Bob attempts to distract, avoid and confuse the readers instead of dealing directly with the dilemma set before him. Of this is his only recourse available other than concede his interpetation of John 6:44-45,64-65 is totally erroneous. Hence, he will not directly address the arguments of my post.
There is no indication that Christ said in John 6 - that those who left "learned from the Father".
If you have such a verse -- please point it out to me.
(And as we both know - I do not say this because I believe in the tradition of OSAS. I would not be bothered at all to find that some of those who were once saved - "fell from grace" and were "Severed from Christ". It is just that I don't have evidence for it in John 6.)
in Christ,
Bob
Correction:; all those drawn will come.
Correction:; all those drawn will come.
First, are you denying that "learn" is included in "draw"?? John 6:44 and 6:65 present the very same problem "no man can come to me" and John 6:44 does not give TWO solutions to that problem "draw AND...."
Furthermore, Jon 6:65 is simply recalling what was stated in verse 44 and Christ states the very same problem "no man can come to me" and he does not give TWO solutions to that problem
"it given unto him AND..." Hence, to have "learned" of the Father must be inclusive of both "draw" and "given it". Therfore are you denying those in verse 64 had "learned"
which is inclusive of "draw" which is inclusive of having "it given" to them?
However, even if you are not, Jesus is denying that such had been drawn by the Father
Third, we have rock solid evidence in the twentieth century that head hunters in New Gunea had grandfather's and father's who never heard of Christ, the cross or the gospel as that generation killed the missionaries sent them and those later saved confessed that no such cross, Christ or gospel had been taught them or known among them in the generations of their father's and grandfathers. Hence, your interpetation of John 12:32 contradicts the facts of History.
"All Drawn" can come to Christ according to vs 44.
Even your argument will have to concede that from vs 44 we have the fact that no one "can" come to Christ except those drawn.
And it would be impossible to then argue "those drawn cannot come to Christ".
Surely that point is agreed upon.
First, are you denying that "learn" is included in "draw"?? John 6:44 and 6:65 present the very same problem "no man can come to me" and John 6:44 does not give TWO solutions to that problem "draw AND...." Furthermore, Jon 6:65 is simply recalling what was stated in verse 44 and Christ states the very same problem "no man can come to me" and he does not give TWO solutions to that problem "it given unto him AND..." Hence, to have "learned" of the Father must be inclusive of both "draw" and "given it". Therfore are you denying those in verse 64 had "learned" which is inclusive of "draw" which is inclusive of having "it given" to them? If so, they you are conceding that the Father does not draw all men without exception. However, even if you are not, Jesus is denying that such had been drawn by the Father and that does include having both heard and learned and so here are "some" that contradict your interpetation.
Second, you have not interpreted "draw" to mean only "learned" of the Father but rather have interpreted to include having "HEARD" and "learned" by the EXTERNAL PREACHING of the gospel and the evidence you and every Arminian on this forum has claimed as EVIDENCE is a PUBLIC PROFESSION OF THE GOSPEL. However, all of these EXTERNALS are true of "his disciples" because He did not accept or claim as "his disicples" anyone who did not profess all of these things. Indeed, the Great Commission in Matthew 28:19-20 literally reads "make disciples" and it includes preaching the gospel (Mk. 16:15) and baptizing those who profess the gospel. The claim of all Arminians on this forum is that verse 63 and the words "my words are spirit and they are life" refer to the EXTERNAL PREACHING of the gospel as you believe faith cometh by the EXTERNAL PREACHING of the gospel rather than by internal revelation as my interpretation consistently states.
Third, we have rock solid evidence in the twentieth century that head hunters in New Gunea had grandfather's and father's who never heard of Christ, the cross or the gospel as that generation killed the missionaries sent them and those later saved confessed that no such cross, Christ or gospel had been taught them or known among them in the generations of their father's and grandfathers. Hence, your interpetation of John 12:32 contradicts the facts of History.
John 6 does not equivocate between Draw and "Those given TO Christ" -- to do that you need a lot of inference and liberties with the text.
john 6 does not say that "all drawn have learned of the Father" - because the teachable spirit of the saved is required for that kind of learning.
All are drawn - but not all choose to believe, not all choose to learn, not all choose to come to Christ, not all will be raised up on the last day.
It still amazes me that a historical context where these facts are true doesn't play any role in how some here choose to interpret these texts:
How do these FACTS not affect how you understand Jesus' words in the gospel of John?
1. Israel has grown calloused to the revelation of God over the generations. (John 12:39, Acts 28, etc)
2. God has 'given them over' to their rebellion and hardened or blinded them in their rebellion making them UNABLE to see, hear, understand and repent, otherwise they might do so and be healed (Acts 28:21-27).
3. In order for God's purpose in electing Israel would stand, He supernaturally intervened by selecting a remnant from Israel to be given directly to His incarnate Son so as to be discipled and commissioned to spread the gospel appeal of reconciliation to the rest of the world. These individuals were supernaturally persuaded with signs, wonders and divine teaching from God in the flesh Himself. In doing so he establishes them as messengers with inspired authority to write the scriptures.
4. The gospel was sent first to Jew and then to Gentiles. The Jews were hardened to it, but the Gentiles would listen. (Acts 28:28)
First, are you denying that "learn" is included in "draw"?? John 6:44 and 6:65 present the very same problem "no man can come to me" and John 6:44 does not give TWO solutions to that problem "draw AND...." Furthermore, Jon 6:65 is simply recalling what was stated in verse 44 and Christ states the very same problem "no man can come to me" and he does not give TWO solutions to that problem "it given unto him AND..." Hence, to have "learned" of the Father must be inclusive of both "draw" and "given it". Therfore are you denying those in verse 64 had "learned" which is inclusive of "draw" which is inclusive of having "it given" to them? If so, they you are conceding that the Father does not draw all men without exception. However, even if you are not, Jesus is denying that such had been drawn by the Father and that does include having both heard and learned and so here are "some" that contradict your interpetation.
Second, you have not interpreted "draw" to mean only "learned" of the Father but rather have interpreted to include having "HEARD" and "learned" by the EXTERNAL PREACHING of the gospel and the evidence you and every Arminian on this forum has claimed as EVIDENCE is a PUBLIC PROFESSION OF THE GOSPEL. However, all of these EXTERNALS are true of "his disciples" because He did not accept or claim as "his disicples" anyone who did not profess all of these things. Indeed, the Great Commission in Matthew 28:19-20 literally reads "make disciples" and it includes preaching the gospel (Mk. 16:15) and baptizing those who profess the gospel. The claim of all Arminians on this forum is that verse 63 and the words "my words are spirit and they are life" refer to the EXTERNAL PREACHING of the gospel as you believe faith cometh by the EXTERNAL PREACHING of the gospel rather than by internal revelation as my interpretation consistently states.
Third, we have rock solid evidence in the twentieth century that head hunters in New Gunea had grandfather's and father's who never heard of Christ, the cross or the gospel as that generation killed the missionaries sent them and those later saved confessed that no such cross, Christ or gospel had been taught them or known among them in the generations of their father's and grandfathers. Hence, your interpetation of John 12:32 contradicts the facts of History.