Thinkingstuff
Active Member
I didn't know that Jesus, Mary, Peter, Paul, etc. spoke Old English.
Are you KJVO? "If the King James was good enough for Paul, then it is good enough for me!" as they claim.
Well, actually Jesus used the AV 1611.
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I didn't know that Jesus, Mary, Peter, Paul, etc. spoke Old English.
Are you KJVO? "If the King James was good enough for Paul, then it is good enough for me!" as they claim.
Not completely. If you could attend an Old Latin rite mass, or a High Mass, or even a High Anglican Mass, then you would know what I mean.I will respectfully disagree with this with all my heart. What you described is exactly what we have with our contemporary worship at our church. Completely.
1) To utter or address a prayer or prayers to God, a god, or another object of worship.
2. To make a fervent request or entreaty.
v.tr.
1. To utter or say a prayer or prayers to; address by prayer.
2. To ask (someone) imploringly; beseech. Now often used elliptically for I pray you to introduce a request or entreaty: Pray be careful.
3. To make a devout or earnest request for: I pray your permission to speak.
4. To move or bring by prayer or entreaty.
The definitions that you gave are:which ignores the definition of prayer that must be understood in context.
such as
Not all of it is for purposes of referrence to diaologue as we would to God.
The definitions that you gave are:
1. from the English language.
2. from modern day English.
Jesus and the Apostles did not speak English.
They did not live in the 20th century.
Therefore your definitions do not apply.
If you want the proper definitions of prayer:
--First go to the context where the word is used.
Context defines the word.
Second, look up the word in the original language. Then choose the meaning of the word in the original language that best fits the context in which it is used. Be sure that it fits the historical context in which it is used. This is the only way that you can determine how a word is used.
That's too bad for them and for you.Catholics are people who live in the modern context and are explaining what they do in a context by which we can understand. Whether Jesus spoke Aramaic over English is irrelevant to the discussion because the discussion is whether Catholics Pray to Mary after the fashion that they pray to God. So modern textual definitions is of importance. You are operating off a different definition than they are thus there is a modern communication problem. First understand their definition which I've placed then make comment. You're commenting on your definition which is not the same thus your comments are irrrelevant until you use the appropiate context.
That's too bad for them and for you.
The Bible is my final authority in all things pertaining to faith and doctrine.
Therefore I must use definitions that come from the Bible.
The Bible alone is my measuring stick. It is absolute.
Let me give you an example--the Ten Commandments.
You can re-define: Thou shalt not kill (commit murder), any way you want. But it still means Don't Murder! It is clearly explained in the Bible. You can re-define it as "cheating" but that is not what it is. You can make it anything you want. But the Bible is absolute in its definitions, and that is what I will go by.
I didn't say you pray to Mary; but others on this board do and say they don't. They try to excuse themselves by using English definitions instead of Biblical definitions. That is no excuse.two things wrong with your statement. No one has questioned the bible or its authoritative nature. What is being discussed is whether Catholics pray to Mary is the same as what one offers to God. Definitions are thus needed to be clarified. I don't pray to Mary in either context if that helps you.
Again, this was an example. Actually it does define what murder is. It even defines manslaughter in the Mosaic Laws. It also defines murder in the NT as anger. But it doesn't define it as "cheating," if someone were to attach such a ridiculous meaning to it. (I am not saying that someone did). It is simply an example. My point is that the Bible is our authority, and any definitions used must come from the Bible.Next the bible does not say "thou shalt not kill" then goes on to define that what it means is murder. The bible doesn't define itself this way. Your wrong if you think it does.
I didn't say you pray to Mary; but others on this board do and say they don't. They try to excuse themselves by using English definitions instead of Biblical definitions. That is no excuse.
Again, this was an example. Actually it does define what murder is. It even defines manslaughter in the Mosaic Laws. It also defines murder in the NT as anger. But it doesn't define it as "cheating," if someone were to attach such a ridiculous meaning to it. (I am not saying that someone did). It is simply an example. My point is that the Bible is our authority, and any definitions used must come from the Bible.
And if the Bible is not the source document for argument against them, we have nothing in common to talk about. I will only discuss things on the basis of the Bible and that is all. That is why I don't use the ECF as my authority. It's the same argument. My authority is the Bible. It is also called sola scriptura.Not if were discussing something requiring our modern language. Prayer to God is exemplified in the bible and when you do it to God it should be done in accordance with scripture. Catholics are saying they don't pray to mary that way so the bible is not the source document for arguing agianst them unless you can prove that they are using the bible context with regard to Mary.
The bottom line is this:
In order to hear the prayers of all of the people on earth, one would need to be aware of what is going on earth, be able to listen to all of the prayers on earth (be many places at once) and be able to read minds and hearts for silent prayers.
So, where do we see in Scripture that anyone but the Godhead can be everywhere and know everything?
And if the Bible is not the source document for argument against them, we have nothing in common to talk about. I will only discuss things on the basis of the Bible and that is all. That is why I don't use the ECF as my authority. It's the same argument. My authority is the Bible. It is also called sola scriptura.
Unless you are outside of space time and God brings stuff to your awareness.
Are we talking about radios and telephones now? Could Neil Armstrong read my mind when I talk to him in my head?So if I spoke to Neil Armstrong when he was on the moon and not on this planet I was in essence worship the astronaut? Didn't Lori say Mary wasn't dead?
Are we talking about radios and telephones now? Could Neil Armstrong read my mind when I talk to him in my head?
If Mary isn't dead, she must be pretty old now! Where can I visit her? It is appointed unto man ONCE TO DIE. Mary died! Her soul lives on, but SHE IS DEAD until her body is resurrected.
I'm actually quite shocked you support Lori and the RCC's position on this
They do believe she died sinless, and never saw death. The Bible says differently.According to Catholics Mary recieved the ressurrection early? I could be wrong but I think thats what they mean by assumption. And who knows who can hear your thoughts? I don't support Lori on this. I have my disagreements with the Catholic church. At one point I was going to Post a deconstruction of the Doctrine of Purgatory. But it would have taken a lot of effort and I'm pretty lazy though I might still do it. I have inside access to what Catholics believe and I want to clarify what it is first before dismanteling it.
Oh and I like arguing with you.
They do believe she died sinless, and never saw death. The Bible says differently.
The only one who can hear your thoughts is God. No human is omniscient.
I like "debating" with you too
1) Romans 3:23, Luke 2:21-24To be honest Web Dog the bible doesn't say anything one way or another about Mary 1) being born sinless 2) Never seeing death 3) or dormition if your EO.
And MY wife can hear my thoughts which is why I wear aluminium foil on my head around her.