standingfirminChrist said:
Chances are that since you are wrong about the five unsaved virgins, you are also mistaken about the prepositional phrase.
The absolute asininity of that statement actually made me laugh out loud. Apparently, "mistaken" means "proves SFIC wrong".
Why will you not answer my question? I would guess that you don't know, because if you do, I will prove that you are incorrect in your understanding, of whether they had oil or not, and then would would have to actually discuss what it means for them to run out after having it.
It's much easier to cling to a man-made false notion than it is to discuss what the Scriptures actually say.
This passage clearly states at the beginning that it's about the Kingdom of the Heavens, not about spiritual salvation. It doesn't even say that the Kingdom of the Heavens was likened unto five wise virgins and the Kingdom of the Earth was likened unto five foolish virgins. It doesn't say that the Kingdom of the Heavens was likened unto five wise virgins and the lake of fire to five foolish virgins. It says, "The Kingdom of the Heavens was likened unto ten virgins". Is the Kingdom of the Heavens likened unto unsaved people?
I also clearly states that their lamps were going out, which they cannot be doing if they are not lit, which they cannot be if they don't have oil in the lamp.
Then, if you look at the two prepositional phrases, the wise virgins took oil in their vessels, along with their lamps. (Even the KJV shows this, but not as clearly as most translations.) Others here are not shutting their eyes to the fact that the lamps had oil in them, and are ready to discuss and/or debate the meaning of them running out of oil.
Now, you've shown repeatedly that you don't care what Scripture says if it contradicts the work in the KJV, even if it's the KJV translators. There are none so blind as those who willfully shut their eyes. I've shown you the verse in the Greek, I've shown you the KJV translators' note, yet you want to cling to your pre-conceived notion, instead of looking at what is actually written: "Going out".
YLT: and the foolish said to the prudent, Give us of your oil, because our lamps are going out;
WNT: "'Give us some of your oil,' said the foolish ones to the wise, 'for our torches are going out.'
REV: And, the foolish, unto the prudent, said—Give us of your oil, because, our torches, are going out.
NET: The foolish ones said to the wise, 'Give us some of your oil, because our lamps are going out.'
ESV: And the foolish said to the wise, 'Give us some of your oil, for our lamps are going out.'
CLV: Now the stupid said to the prudent, 'Give us of your oil, for our torches are going out.'
ALT: "Then the foolish [ones] said to the wise [ones], 'Give to us out of your* oil, because our lamps are being extinguished.'
Every single translation that I own, except for the KJV, uses a present, middle (some say passive), indicative; it's linear action. Even the KJV translators that you seem to put on a pedestal of infallibility put this in their notes.
Do you understand present tense? Do you understand what a prepositional phrase is? Why do you refuse to answer these two simple questions?