Yes, as plain in the great Commission how valid water baptism is to be administered!Does God ever say this? Did the early church ever say this?
And any baptism done by Rome not valid, as not a NT church!
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Yes, as plain in the great Commission how valid water baptism is to be administered!Does God ever say this? Did the early church ever say this?
...nor any other Christian.No Baptist should believe in that though!
An obvious listing? No. This is a Category 2 Truth. One that is arrived at through logical application of NT examples. As for pedo-baptism not being a hill to die on. What do you think was the main cause of the RCC, Reformed, and Luthern persecution of the (Ana)Baptists back in the day? Haven't you heard of Obediah Holmes? Governor Endecott thought he was worthy of hanging.Again, does the Bible give a rule on "proper" immersion? In my reading, I don't see a hard and fast rule. I see that there is an argument for a regulative view and a normative view. I simply err on the side of extending grace.
Mikey, I showed you the scripture whereby the children are sanctified by the believing parent. The argument by paedobaptists is that the covenant covers these children as being a part of the community of believers until such time as they display faith or follow their carnal nature. The infant baptism signifies they are members in the covenant, just as circumcision signified Hebrews as being in the Old Covenant. Those 8 day old boys had not expressed faith. Should the elders have waited until evidence of faith before circumcising them as members of the covenant?The issue is that you believe that paedobaptism is legitimate baptism, that the infants are actually in the covenant of grace. This is opposed to Baptist beliefs. Are the unrepentant, unregenerate, those without faith part of the Covernant of Grace? Should the unrepentant, unregenerate and those without faith be given the covenant sign? Baptists say No! The Presbyterians say yes.
The Covenant of Grace is the New Covenant, the Covenant which was inaugerated by the shedding of the precious blood of Chrsit. Only those who are in Christ are in the Covenant. There is no second baptism as you keep stating, so of course you won't find scripture arguing for that.
Baptism is a hill worth dying over.
Why do you believe that faith and repentance is irrelevant to the legitimacy of Baptism? Presbyterians seperate salvation with the Church (which is the body of Christ), thus unregenerate, unsaved peope are in and are the body of Christ. I would say that scripture is clear about who is in the covenant and thus only those in covenant should recieve the covenant sign.
Are there any examples where baptism was given without a profession of faith? Where do you find even a hint that unbelieving infants should or are baptised in scripture? Where in scripture does it teach that circumcision equals baptism? Presbyterians needed to make a baptism the same substance as circumcision because they did not have any teaching from the new which justified their theology.
If a infant was "baptised" but then rejected the Church/the faith but then a few years later was converted. Would this person need to be "re-baptised"?
Have you studied Reformed Baptist theology? because by the sound of it you've read alot of presbyterian theology.
This is certainly a regulative view argument.The NT view also links water baptism to one already having been saved in Christ, hard to believe babies can do that!
This is an assertion not backed up by scripture. Instead, you are making an assertion from Baptist tradition.Yes, as plain in the great Commission how valid water baptism is to be administered!
And any baptism done by Rome not valid, as not a NT church!
An obvious listing? No. This is a Category 2 Truth. One that is arrived at through logical application of NT examples. As for pedo-baptism not being a hill to die on. What do you think was the main cause of the RCC, Reformed, and Luthern persecution of the (Ana)Baptists back in the day? Haven't you heard of Obediah Holmes? Governor Endecott thought he was worthy of hanging.
The only persons included in the NC in the NT would be those saved by the Lord Jesus , correct? Those holding to infant baptism would seem to be stating to us that once water baptized, receive the Holy Spirit and are in the Kingdom, and then if they reject Jesus, then undo it all?Mikey, I showed you the scripture whereby the children are sanctified by the believing parent. The argument by paedobaptists is that the covenant covers these children as being a part of the community of believers until such time as they display faith or follow their carnal nature. The infant baptism signifies they are members in the covenant, just as circumcision signified Hebrews as being in the Old Covenant. Those 8 day old boys had not expressed faith. Should the elders have waited until evidence of faith before circumcising them as members of the covenant?
If, baptism takes the place of circumcision as a sign of the covenant, should the child, whose parents are members of the covenant, be held out of the covenant until faith is confirmed?
Do you see the thought process of paedobaptists? Do you see the legitimacy in their position? You may not agree, I can concur, but surely you can see their reasoning and the legitimacy of their thought.
If a child of believing parents has been baptized into the covenant and then displays faith at a later date, should they be forced to be re-baptized a second time or is God pleased with the original baptism so that they are acknowledged as being in covenant membership?
I, personally, would not require a second baptism. I would accept their membership in the covenant.
Where in the NT is it stated that others then those saved gte water Baptized? ONLY can get there by assuming Presbie theology, not Baptist!This is an assertion not backed up by scripture. Instead, you are making an assertion from Baptist tradition.
Were the only person's under the Mosaic Covenant only those with faith or was all Israel under that covenant? Are the only persons under the New Covenant only those with faith or does the faith of the believing parent set apart the children? You have to wrestle with Paul's comments in 1 Corinthians 7 to try answer this. This is where your understanding of covenant theology will help. John MacArthur is a dispensationalist so he will blow that passage off as unimportant, but if God is a covenant making God and he sets apart the children of the Israel of God as he did with those under the nation of Israel, then you have to wrestle with how that works.The only persons included in the NC in the NT would be those saved by the Lord Jesus , correct? Those holding to infant baptism would seem to be stating to us that once water baptized, receive the Holy Spirit and are in the Kingdom, and then if they reject Jesus, then undo it all?
Here is where we have to either make a hard rule to only follow a regulative rule or whether a normative rule also may apply. As one who holds to covenant theology one has to wrestle through this issue. As I said earlier, I will not die on this hill. I am still wrestling with how this functions in light of baptism as an ordinance.Where in the NT is it stated that others then those saved gte water Baptized? ONLY can get there by assuming Presbie theology, not Baptist!
Mikey, I showed you the scripture whereby the children are sanctified by the believing parent. The argument by paedobaptists is that the covenant covers these children as being a part of the community of believers until such time as they display faith or follow their carnal nature. The infant baptism signifies they are members in the covenant, just as circumcision signified Hebrews as being in the Old Covenant. Those 8 day old boys had not expressed faith. Should the elders have waited until evidence of faith before circumcising them as members of the covenant?
If, baptism takes the place of circumcision as a sign of the covenant, should the child, whose parents are members of the covenant, be held out of the covenant until faith is confirmed?
Do you see the thought process of paedobaptists? Do you see the legitimacy in their position? You may not agree, I can concur, but surely you can see their reasoning and the legitimacy of their thought.
If a child of believing parents has been baptized into the covenant and then displays faith at a later date, should they be forced to be re-baptized a second time or is God pleased with the original baptism so that they are acknowledged as being in covenant membership?
I, personally, would not require a second baptism. I would accept their membership in the covenant.
Here is where we have to either make a hard rule to only follow a regulative rule or whether a normative rule also may apply. As one who holds to covenant theology one has to wrestle through this issue. As I said earlier, I will not die on this hill. I am still wrestling with how this functions in light of baptism as an ordinance.
As I mentioned in the topic thread asking what denomination would you be if not a Baptist, I answered...Presbyterian.
Mikey, I appreciate the resources.How can you be a Baptist yet believe infant baptism is legitimate? Your position seems to me inconsistant.
Don't jump from one frying pan into another.
This video may be useful. Describes the differences between 1689 federalism and the presbyterian form.
Also, I suggest that you have a watch (audit for free) of lectures 21 -25 of the creeds and confessions module from the Reformed Baptist Seminary, those cover covenant theology.
Another useful website: 1689 Federalism | The distinctive biblical theology of confessional particular baptists
If baptism takes the place of circumcision as a sign of the new covenant, the correspondence is that the sign would only be administered after one was born into the family. This birth is spiritual, not natural.The infant baptism signifies they are members in the covenant, just as circumcision signified Hebrews as being in the Old Covenant. Those 8 day old boys had not expressed faith. Should the elders have waited until evidence of faith before circumcising them as members of the covenant?
If baptism takes the place of circumcision as a sign of the new covenant, the correspondence is that the sign would only be administered after one was born into the family. This birth is spiritual, not natural.
No rub whatsoever, and no baptism in view. The statement of Paul in verse 14 is set in the larger context of instruction on marriage found in 1 Corinthians chapter 7. Verses 12 through 24 address questions on the marriages of believers and unbelievers. Should Christian believers stay married to unbelievers? Paul stresses that coming to faith in Christ does not dissolve natural bonds or blood relationship. They should remain married.There is the rub. 1 Corinthians 7 is used to indicate that the children of spiritually reborn family member are made holy by that family member and therefore the unity of membership into that holiness is the baptism of that child.
The big IF is whether or not infant baptism into the covenant is scriptural. If it is, then they would be baptized and have no need to be “re-baptized”. The “rub” is that most Baptists still do not recognize infant baptism as any form of baptism at all, scripturally. If that is correct, then infants have never been baptized, not matter what paedobaptists think, and Baptists do not baptize them a second time, but the first time in response to their faith.Back to the original topic.
If the child is baptized into the covenant as an infant and then is drawn by God into saving faith, are they needing to be re-baptized into a covenant in which they were already previously baptized? The answer comes in how you determine the process of covenant. Can one be set apart in the covenant before they have displayed saving faith? If God has predestined that person to be saved into the New Covenant, does it matter the order by which they are brought into covenant? Can water baptism come first before spiritual baptism? Here the Bible gives no explicit nor implicit answer. Therefore, speaking only for myself, I choose to extend grace.
Well said and spoken from a regulative argument of what is provided in the Bible and the implications thereof.No rub whatsoever, and no baptism in view. The statement of Paul in verse 14 is set in the larger context of instruction on marriage found in 1 Corinthians chapter 7. Verses 12 through 24 address questions on the marriages of believers and unbelievers. Should Christian believers stay married to unbelievers? Paul stresses that coming to faith in Christ does not dissolve natural bonds or blood relationship. They should remain married.
An unbeliever, by virtue of his or her being married to a believer, is set apart or holy. A child of a believer, by virtue of being the child of a believer, is set apart or holy. Both the unbelieving spouse/parent and unknowing child are sanctified by their relationships to the believer. The unbelieving spouse and unknowing child share in the blessings available to the believer, because of their being in a relationship with that believer. The unbelieving spouse and the unknowing child have the same sanctified relation to the believer. (If this sanctification qualifies the child for baptism, the like sanctification would also qualify the adult for baptism.) This relation is in the marriage covenant, not in the church covenant.
Interestingly, when Paul addresses the children -- else were your children unclean -- he does not speak of “their” children (that is, the children of the husband and wife addressed) but rather of “your” children (Gk. humon ὑμῶν your, genitive plural) -- the children generally of the people of the church of Corinth. Understanding this statement cues us to the fact that Paul is not making a cause and effect argument, but rather is comparing the like status of different individuals in the family. The holiness of the children is not an effect of the sanctification of the unbelieving spouse; it is a situation like it. Children are unclean with the exception of the same kind of holiness as the unbelieving adult parent has. If the unbelieving spouse were not sanctified by the marriage, it would be true also that an unknowing and unbelieving child, born by nature a sinner, is not sanctified by the relationship to a believing parent (not because of it, but for the same kind of reason). If unbelieving spouses should be cast off from with their believing spouses, then children also ought to be severed from familial connection to believing parents as well. The whole of family and society would thereby be disrupted. As such, Paul makes a forceful argument for the maintaining the marriages of believers and unbelievers. It says nothing of infant baptism.
According to John Leadley Dagg in A Decisive Argument Against Infant Baptism: Furnished by One of Its Own Proof-texts, Paul’s insight here provides proof that infant baptism was not practiced by the church at Corinth. He writes, “The church at Corinth was a Pedobaptist church, or it was not. If it was a Pedobaptist church, the argument of Paul was invalid; because it was based on the false assumption, that the children sealed with the seal of God’s covenant, dedicated to Him in the holy rite of baptism, and admitted within the pale of the church, were in like circumstances with unbelieving and unbaptized adults, who were out of the covenant, and out of the church. But Paul did not use an invalid argument: therefore this church was not Pedobaptist; and the same must be true of all the churches planted by the Apostles, since they were, doubtless, all similarly organized.”
The big IF is whether or not infant baptism into the covenant is scriptural. If it is, then they would be baptized and have no need to be “re-baptized”. The “rub” is that most Baptists still do not recognize infant baptism as any form of baptism at all, scripturally. If that is correct, then infants have never been baptized, not matter what paedobaptists think, and Baptists do not baptize them a second time, but the first time in response to their faith.
Baptism is a command of God to be performed (e.g. Matthew 28:18-20) and to be submitted to (e.g. Acts 2:38; 10:48; 22:16). The order of the command to baptize is make disciples, baptize, and teach. We are commanded to baptize believers. The command to be baptized is to those who have repented and believed the gospel. The command to baptize and the command to be baptized revolves around faith in Jesus Christ, a response of faith, an answer of a good conscience toward God. There is no command to baptize infants who have not been discipled, or for parents to have their infants be baptized.
I am quite willing to extend grace to paedobaptists, in acknowledging their right to observe the ordinances in the way they understand them. I am not willing, however, to countenance what I believe is an unscriptural act. I believe that extending grace in that case requires teaching the truth to someone who wonders if they should be baptized, rather than recognizing something we do not believe is scriptural. Hopefully they can extend the same grace toward our practicing what we believe.
David did not say any such thing. ". . . But now he is dead, wherefore should I fast? can I bring him back again? I shall go to him, but he shall not return to me. . . ."As for children' being saved or not, the only example we have is David's son by Bathsheba, who died shortly after birth. David, who was a prophet, said he'd join him in heaven some day.