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Original Sin

LadyEagle

<b>Moderator</b> <img src =/israel.gif>
Each person died spiritually for his own sin but eveyone dies phyically only on account of the Adam's sin.

Jumping in here at the last minute to say, if that was true, then why did God banish A&E from the garden so they would no longer be able to partake of the Tree of Life? Explain that one away. Thanks.
 

Allan

Active Member
Pastor Larry said:
Allan,

Way too much to respond to here. I will make a few comments, and urge you to avail yourself of some of the excellent commentaries on Romans such as Moo, Murray, Schriener.

That God takes infants to heaven without conscious faith because they cannot exercise it. But they still have sin according to various passages. I base my view largely on the story of David’s son.

I don’t think your John 10 passage says at all what you want and need it to say. Your view contradicts too many other passages.

Nope, not at all. Sin is not conditioned on knowledge, but on conformity to God’s moral image.

I think your explanation of Romans 5 is very lacking, but I don’t have time to get into it. Again, I would recommend some of these great commentaries who interact with the text in a very detailed exegetical and theological way.
I have them and bout 8 others (yes, full sets and it set me back quite a bit too)
Well, hold what you want as I said I was explaining my position on the scriptures according to the scriptures verse by verse and in context. Ones personal Thoelogy conglomerated with with it will cause one to see the explaination differently and I understand that.
I didn't expect you to agree because you theology would allow for it, but as I said it was what I have studied and found most true.
 
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skypair

Active Member
Pastor Larry said:
No, as I said, I think infants are spiritually dead because of the teaching of Scripture across both testaments. But I believe, based on this issue of David’s son largely, that God does treat infants and incompetents differently.
That's what I am trying to get at, Larry. YOU think. Why not accept the biblical pattern for salvation rather than making one up??

Or perhaps they would miss your meaning. The meaning of Scripture is pretty clear on this without your addition.
Perhaps. There is ambiguity in whether this "death" is physical or spiritual.

How does this make my contention not true? I think this is perfectly consistent with my contention.
Ezek 18:20 says sin guilt in not inherited, Larry. You say it is -- from Adam.

No. I think “many” and “all” are used as rhetorical devices.
Too bad you're not into literal in this case.

No, again, it is talking about the modus operandi of sin and righteousness being imputatation rather than act.
So sin is not inherited. OK, how is it imputed? Why does God make sinners through "imputation" out of innocent beings?

From passages in both the OT and NT that teach that babies are sinners from conception, and that Adam’s sin guilt is charged to all humanity that are in adam.
You mean David, Psa 51:5? "I was shapen in iniquity and in sin did my mother conceive me?" David is speaking about the corruption of the seed, not of the spirit. Again, David did not inherit sin and iniquity from his mother. He inherited the propensity to do what he is confessing in Psa 51:4 -- to sin on his own behalf against God.

What's the other verse you are having trouble with?

As I said, I think God treats infants and incompetents differently.
How is that not "another gospel?" How do they get saved (justified - sanctified - glorified if not "through Christ?"

I think it means law of Moses. Before the Law of Moses, people still sinned.
Good.

skypair
 

Allan

Active Member
LadyEagle said:


Jumping in here at the last minute to say, if that was true, then why did God banish A&E from the garden so they would no longer be able to partake of the Tree of Life? Explain that one away. Thanks.
Not that I agree with Skypair on us being only dead physically (but I believe also spiritually seperated).
However, knowing where he is coming from... They had already commited sinned and under Gods judgment. So in partaking of the Tree of Life would have sealed them in disobedience and their sin. And even in my view it is the same.
 

The Archangel

Well-Known Member
to all but especially Skypair

Skypair,


One man committed sin -- all die PHYSICALLY on account of that regardless of whether they sinned or not. Some call it "blood poisoning" from the forbidden fruit. Know how your kids can inherit susceptibility to cancer, diabetes, etc? Same thing except with 100% inheritance.


Your analogy does not follow perfectly…but I see your point and I don’t disagree—All die because of Adam’s sin.

There was no "law" -- 10 commandments, etc. -- to break but there was still sin against conscience and against God's commands. Each person died spiritually for his own sin but eveyone dies phyically only on account of the Adam's sin. Don't get the 2 confused.

You have contradicted the Scripture in this statement. You say “Each person died spiritually for his own sin.” However, Romans 5 says sin is not counted where there is no law. Your statement requires there to have been a law to break—there was none. People still did evil, as evidenced in God’s statements against man—5 The Lord saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every intention of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually.” (Genesis 6:5 ESV)—but that verse is a discussion for another time. Not to mention, Romans 5:18 says, “one trespass led to condemnation for all men” .

You are constructing a false dichotomy in your position. The fact is Scripture, nowhere suggests two falls or two types of “original sin.”

Sin does not count SPIRITUALLY where there is no law/10 commandments but, as you know, God gave commands to Adam and his posterity (which all but Noah's 8 broke) and God gave "commands" by conscience which men are accountable for. They died spiritually for not obeying God's commands. They weren't guilty of Adam's sin, Archangel. That is not why they died -- neither spiritually nor bodily. Do you see that now? They disobeyed their own set of "laws" which God had given them just like Adam disobeyed the one "law" God gave him. When Paul uses "the law" in this passage, he is speaking of the law of Moses.


So, are you saying Noah and his children/children-in-law were perfect?

Where do you find that God “gave commands by conscience.” It is possible to misconstrue the first chapter of Romans to suggest this, but it would be that—a misunderstanding of the passage.

If the dead between Adam and Moses had no sin counted against them (due to the absence of law), and as we all know the wages of sin is death, why would they have died?

They died, as Romans 5 clearly states— “one trespass led to condemnation for all men” . The trespass is Adam’s and the condemnation is ours.

In God’s way of doing things, we are all counted as legally guilty for Adam’s sin. If we die, which we do, it is because of his sin. Our own sin only serves to condemn us further—which makes God’s grace more amazing, I might add.

But infants have no "law" -- no "commands" nor conscience, right?

Unfortunately, your entire presupposition on this issue is based on something other than Scripture. Your position seeks to pacify some unfortunate and dark facts about the human condition. It would be much nicer and easier if your position were scriptural—I would actually prefer your dualistic position, if it were supported by anything in Scripture.

One of the things about the Scripture is it tells us things about ourselves and humanity in general that we do not like. For instance: I am a very reluctant Calvinist. I don’t like that Paul teaches what we call Calvinism—An all-pervasive depravity, Unconditional election, Particular atonement, Irresistible grace, and Perseverance of the saints.

It is not up to me, or any of us, to change the point the authors were making on behalf of The Author Himself, no matter how distasteful they may be to our delicate, Americanized sensibilities.

I’m sure you’ll have something to say about this post and I’m sure I’ll have something to answer….Until then!


Blessings,

The Archangel
 

Pastor Larry

<b>Moderator</b>
Site Supporter
I didn't expect you to agree because you theology would allow for it, but as I said it was what I have studied and found most true.
It actually isn't my theology that won't allow it. I think it is the text that won't allow it. And there is our problem. If you have those commentaries, make good use of them.
 

webdog

Active Member
Site Supporter
Pastor Larry said:
Nope, not at all. God is not a respecter of persons, and this doesn't make him one.
How is salvation to a specific group of people differing from what is laid out in Scirpture NOT being a respecter of persons? Just because you say so?
 

Pastor Larry

<b>Moderator</b>
Site Supporter
Why not accept the biblical pattern for salvation rather than making one up??
Because 2 Sam seems to set a pattern of salvation for infants. It is not explicit, so I say "I think." At least I am honest enough to say when some is less than explicit in Scripture. That's a plus right?? :D
There is ambiguity in whether this "death" is physical or spiritual.
I have a hard time seeing the ambiguity. It seems pretty clear that it is both.

Ezek 18:20 says sin guilt in not inherited, Larry. You say it is -- from Adam.
I don't think Ezek 18:20 says that exactly. God is talking about immediate ancestors bringing guilt on others. This passage is not about headship (federal vs. seminal). Furthermore, everyone is punished for their own sins. There are none who do not sin (that seems to include babies since "none" means "none" right?)]
Too bad you're not into literal in this case.
Actually, I am very much into literal. In the context, the literal is just as I described.

So sin is not inherited. OK, how is it imputed?
Sin guilt is inherited through imputation. Imputation is a legal declaration.

Why does God make sinners through "imputation" out of innocent beings?
To save people. If he doesn't do this, then he cannot impute our sins to the innocent Christ, and cannot impute Christ's righteousness to the guilty us.

You mean David, Psa 51:5? "I was shapen in iniquity and in sin did my mother conceive me?" David is speaking about the corruption of the seed, not of the spirit. Again, David did not inherit sin and iniquity from his mother. He inherited the propensity to do what he is confessing in Psa 51:4 -- to sin on his own behalf against God.
Among others. But what is "corruption of the seed"? Sin is a spiritual matter.

What's the other verse you are having trouble with?
Others verses? I am not having trouble with any.

How is that not "another gospel?" How do they get saved (justified - sanctified - glorified if not "through Christ?"
It is through Christ, and it is not another gospel because it seems to be the description of how God works. Again, it is hard to draw a hard doctrine from that story, but it seems to be how God works.
 

russell55

New Member
webdog said:
He did, in a way they would understand.
Of course he wrote in a way they would understand.

2000 years later we add the understanding that we want to hold to, not the original point he was making.
2000 years later we interpret the verse according to our understanding of the original languages and original context, and according to the way it has been interpreted by the majority of Christendom down through history. That our very nature itself--how we are born, what we are made up of, constitutionally--makes us objects of God's wrath is the historical interpretation of the church, from the early church fathers on throughout history right up to today. Saying it's a "2000 years later" thing shows absolute ignorance of church history.

Has nothing to do with "constitution" as I showed per Galations 2:15.
Someone born a Jew is not contitutionally Jewish? Jewishness is not part of who they are, but just an outcome of what they do?


To the context of that passage, being jew or gentile makes all of the difference. Just because you substitute constitution for race doesnt' make your postion valid.
If by nature means by race, as you are suggesting here, then Paul is saying that they are all, by race, objects of God's wrath. But that still leaves you with people being objects of God's wrath because of the way they were born rather than merely because of what they do, does it not?

Likewise, where is the Scripture stating that guilt is inherited, not nature?
One half of original sin is inherited sin nature. I'm working on this half right now.

I'll answer this question with a question. Does God overlook the sin natures of those "in Christ" and take them into God's presence just as they are, or are they glorified so that they have perfect spiritual bodies and a righteous nature?
They are glorified.

But that doesn't answer my question. Do you believe babies who die are glorified?
 
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The Archangel

Well-Known Member
To All

To All:

Let me say clearly that I understand the issue of the death of babies and the death of the mentally incompetent is a difficult issue. Let me also say that we tend to cloud the issue with our own baggage and desires.

If someone in my church came to me with the question related to the salvation of infants or the mentally incompetent I would not invent things; I would point them to the Scripture.

For the most part, Scripture is deafeningly silent on the matter. At no place is it explicitly stated that infants or the mentally incompetent will be saved. However, there are a precious few places where we can see the possibility that infants are somehow saved.

2 Samuel 12:22-23 shows a heartbreaking scene. David’s child, with Bathsheba—as a result of their sin, has just died. The Scripture says, 22 He [David] said, “While the child was still alive, I fasted and wept, for I said, ‘Who knows whether the Lord will be gracious to me, that the child may live?’ 23 But now he is dead. Why should I fast? Can I bring him back again? I shall go to him, but he will not return to me.”

Now, there is not much to go on here. But David seems to think he will, perhaps, see this child again. It may be that David is speaking of his impending death and he is going to the grave and will be in the grave as the child is in the grave. Most people take this to be saying that David is expecting to see the child when he dies, but, ultimately, this passage is inconclusive.

We should not be focusing on explaining what Scripture is mostly silent about. Rather, we should be focusing on God, His perfect goodness, and His perfect justice. We should tell people that God will always do right.

So, rather than inventing a ridiculous idea of an “Age of Accountability” or trying to explain how it might be possible for infants or the mentally incompetent to be saved, we should be saying this: Since God is totally righteous and perfect, we trust Him to make the correct decision in all circumstances. To put it another way, we may not know for sure what happens to infants and the mentally incompetent when they die, but we do know the One who holds their eternal destiny in His hands and we know that in every decision He makes, He makes the right one.

Blessings,

The Archangel
 

Pastor Larry

<b>Moderator</b>
Site Supporter
How is salvation to a specific group of people differing from what is laid out in Scirpture NOT being a respecter of persons? Just because you say so?
Different than what is laid out in Scripture? My point is drawn from Scripture, from what it seems that God said he does. So it isn't different than what is "laid out in Scripture" because it is laid out in Scripture.

Think of your position. If he saves infants who die simply because they were not able to sin, then he is a respecter of those who have not sinned.

Sovereign election of individuals based only in God's good pleasure seems the only way to avoid respect of persons.
 

Allan

Active Member
Pastor Larry said:
Different than what is laid out in Scripture? My point is drawn from Scripture, from what it seems that God said he does. So it isn't different than what is "laid out in Scripture" because it is laid out in Scripture.

Think of your position. If he saves infants who die simply because they were not able to sin, then he is a respecter of those who have not sinned.

Sovereign election of individuals based only in God's good pleasure seems the only way to avoid respect of persons.
:rolleyes: Oh brother!
The respecter of person clause found in the scripture refers to God giving something to one group without equally offering the same to the other. God said a person is saved if they BELIEVE. Can a person be saved if they do not Believe?? Not even in Calvinism! (And God NEVER states their is some other dispensation towards Children nor impared) This doesn't make God a respecter of person because He saved the one who beleived for that salvation verses the one who didn't for is offered to ALL men.
10For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.
 

The Archangel

Well-Known Member
Allan:

Allan,

You said:
The respecter of person clause found in the scripture refers to God giving something to one group without equally offering the same to the other.

Oh really? Then explain why Israel was chosen out of all the nations of the world. Were all nations offered the special status of Israel? No.

Please try to explain your above statement.

Blessings,

The Archangel
 

Allan

Active Member
The Archangel said:
Allan,

You said:


Oh really? Then explain why Israel was chosen out of all the nations of the world. Were all nations offered the special status of Israel? No.

Please try to explain your above statement.

Blessings,

The Archangel
That my friend is quite easy.
They were chosen not to salvation but for a purpose.
They were chosen to be a people from whom the Messiah would come and fulfill the promise of hope and redemption.
Everyone could be apart of Israel but not everyone could come FROM Israel - Jacob and be blood decendents. But we find they were partakers in everything else other than the specific land and temple duties.

The clause with regard to God not being a respector of persons is in relation to salvation.

Were all the world offered such a status? You bet! ALL the world could become Jewish and we find many people(s) did and therein shared that blessed status of being Gods people.
 
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Brother Bob

New Member
t 19:14But Jesus said, Suffer little children, and forbid them not, to come unto me: for of such is the kingdom of heaven.

Not going to be but already is!! Sure glad Jesus had a better understanding of little children than you do.
 

Allan

Active Member
Brother Bob said:
t 19:14But Jesus said, Suffer little children, and forbid them not, to come unto me: for of such is the kingdom of heaven.

Not going to be but already is!! Sure glad Jesus had a better understanding of little children than you do.
Who, Bob?
Who are you speaking to??
 

Allan

Active Member
The Archangel said:
We should not be focusing on explaining what Scripture is mostly silent about. Rather, we should be focusing on God, His perfect goodness, and His perfect justice. We should tell people that God will

So, rather than inventing a ridiculous idea of an “Age of Accountability” or trying to explain how it might be possible for infants or the mentally incompetent to be saved, we should be saying this: Since God is totally righteous and perfect, we trust Him to make the correct decision in all circumstances. To put it another way, we may not know for sure what happens to infants and the mentally incompetent when they die, but we do know the One who holds their eternal destiny in His hands and we know that in every decision He makes, He makes the right one.

Blessings,

The Archangel
In other words use God as your excuse for your ignorance.

We are to give an account of what scripture does say.

But the question laid out - Why would children or impared NOT be sent straight to hell since all are guilty in sin?
So if you don't have any information to actaully add it might behoove you to sit back and either listen to learn or just not participate.
 
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Brother Bob

New Member
I am on your side Allan.

1Cr 14:20 ¶ Brethren, be not children in understanding: howbeit in malice be ye children, but in understanding be men.


My Bible is filled with scriptures to adults and not little children.
 

Allan

Active Member
Brother Bob said:
I am on your side Allan.

1Cr 14:20 ¶ Brethren, be not children in understanding: howbeit in malice be ye children, but in understanding be men.


My Bible is filled with scriptures to adults and not little children.
I figured, I just didn't know to whom you were addressing.
 
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