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Perfect VS Accurate

Which one do you believe?


  • Total voters
    7
  • Poll closed .
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jbh28

Active Member
"him", vs. "them" It is within the realm of possibility that the "him" is a Hebrew word refering to the singular collective of the "words of God" and every Hebrew noun has a gender of masculine or feminine.

There is no neutral in Hebrew but sometimes a noun can be referenced as either masculine or feminine depending upon the context.



Biblical Hebrew, TW Nakarai, pg. 25.

It is not an uncommon thing in Hebrew to switch from plural to a collective singular noun or to change gender as well.
It doesn't happen on every page but it is not uncommon (See note 1 of the citation above on page 25 of Nakarai).

But so what if this passage is in reference to the "words of God" as a singular masculine entity!

There is no book in antiquity or history that has the thousands upon thousands of mss which bear witness to this passage concerning the preservation of the words of God.

Even Homer's Illad has only a small handful of source manuscripts from which it is reconstructed. No one makes a big deal about that.

Yet year after year after year with new archeolgical discoveries, Dead Sea Scrolls, papyrii and other sources it is proven over and over again the promise of God to preserve His words.

And both the KJV and the NIV are the products of this promise.

HankD

Thanks for the info. I still don't think it is referring to preservation of the words in this passage but the people when read in context. I do believe the words will be preserved as there are plenty of other passage that teach that.
 

HankD

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Thanks for the info. I still don't think it is referring to preservation of the words in this passage but the people when read in context. I do believe the words will be preserved as there are plenty of other passage that teach that.
Yes it could very well be either way. That is why the KJV translators marginalized it as both ways.

Consider this though, there have been many godly who have been martyred and perished (in this life). So this passage in Ps 12, if it were the people, would have to be in a OSAS context.


HankD
 

gb93433

Active Member
Site Supporter
Jesus is the best translation of all. He is God and existed before time and exists now. He translated by putting it into practice.
 

Askjo

New Member
Correct. The "them" refers to the "poor" and "needy" of verse 5. Verse 6 is saying that when God makes a promise, He will keep it. Then verse 7 tells us that God, just as He promised in verse 5 ("I will set him in safety from him that puffeth at him."), will preserve the poor and needy even under the worst oppression imaginable.

Even the KJV of 1611 says, in the margin "Heb. him, i. euery one of them" referring to the poor and needy, not the words (in this case not referring to the written word of God, but to the promise of God).
You opposed to Dr. Strouse.
 

HankD

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
You opposed to Dr. Strouse.
So, what difference does it really make Askjo?

Psalm 12 doesn't do a thing for "Onlyism".

It doesn't identify a codex or a translation which is the "Only" preserved collective of the "words of God"(if that is indeed the object of the preservation).

The unique literary situation on planet earth are the 1000's of manuscript witnesses to the fact that God has indeed preserved His word milennia before the advent of the printing press, electronics, computers, etc.

Each year scores of new witnesses are added to the list.

HankD
 

Dr. Bob

Administrator
Administrator
Those of us who know Tom Strouse know he is not inspired or perfect. He'd admit it himself!!

Dr Cassidy and I disagree on some issues, but this is just basic 1-2-3 language and should NEVER have been an issue until the 'only sect' needed to try to support their schismatic teaching.
 

jbh28

Active Member
Certainly that is true but how can something be more accurate than accurate.

One thing is accurate because it is technically correct but not perfect. The other is more accurate, closer to perfection. Accurate doesn't equal perfect in this context. Obviously, neither translation(KJV or NASB) is perfect.
 
I voted that the KJV is the perfect translation because it tells me about Christ Jesus. What could be more perfect than that?

I liked the other choice too. The KJV is the most accurate translation because it tells me that Christ is risen from the dead. What could be more accurate than that?

A.F.
 
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Rippon

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I voted that the KJV is the perfect translation because it tells me about Christ Jesus. What could be more perfect than that?

All other English (can't speak for all of the foreign) translations tell of Jesus Christ. The KJV is not unique in that respect.

I liked the other choice too. The KJV is the most accurate translation because it tells me that Christ is risen from the dead. What could be more accurate than that?

See my comment above. You aren't scoring any points A.F.
 

Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
As usual, the poll is flawed. I believe both, but can only vote for one. So I boycott your poll. I also believe both statements if you replace "KJV" with "NIV" or even "nKJV".

What I believe follows me in my trailer &/or signature block:
 
All other English (can't speak for all of the foreign) translations tell of Jesus Christ. The KJV is not unique in that respect.



See my comment above. You aren't scoring any points A.F.

The joke is on you Rippon. I wasn't playing in your game. According to our own Ed Edwards the KJV is perfect. I said absolutely nothing about other versions.

A.F.
 
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