"him", vs. "them" It is within the realm of possibility that the "him" is a Hebrew word refering to the singular collective of the "words of God" and every Hebrew noun has a gender of masculine or feminine.
There is no neutral in Hebrew but sometimes a noun can be referenced as either masculine or feminine depending upon the context.
Biblical Hebrew, TW Nakarai, pg. 25.
It is not an uncommon thing in Hebrew to switch from plural to a collective singular noun or to change gender as well.
It doesn't happen on every page but it is not uncommon (See note 1 of the citation above on page 25 of Nakarai).
But so what if this passage is in reference to the "words of God" as a singular masculine entity!
There is no book in antiquity or history that has the thousands upon thousands of mss which bear witness to this passage concerning the preservation of the words of God.
Even Homer's Illad has only a small handful of source manuscripts from which it is reconstructed. No one makes a big deal about that.
Yet year after year after year with new archeolgical discoveries, Dead Sea Scrolls, papyrii and other sources it is proven over and over again the promise of God to preserve His words.
And both the KJV and the NIV are the products of this promise.
HankD
Thanks for the info. I still don't think it is referring to preservation of the words in this passage but the people when read in context. I do believe the words will be preserved as there are plenty of other passage that teach that.