Baptist_Pastor/Theologian said:The word thing is such a precise term. Wow. You are actually going to academically argue that time is not a thing. Let me offer you a definition for the word thing from dictionary.com, "Thing: An entity, an idea, or a quality perceived, known, or thought to have its own existence." So as you can see time is a thing. Is it an object, no? You are limiting the word thing to material matter. Time is not material matter but it is a factor in understanding creation. Creation is subject to time and space. Matter cannot exist eternally due to the 2nd Law of Thermodynamics. Heat Death would ensue from the state of equilibrium that all systems eventually reach. If you want to talk about time and eternity, I am your Huckleberry.
Grace and Peace,
Awesome, I appreciate the opportunity to work out a few theories with you.
Okay, first I agree with your point concerning time being a 'thing' within the context of your definition. It is true I was speaking particularly about creation (i.e. material creation) and thus giving 'thing-ness' the characteristics of object-ness.
With regards to time and it being a part of understanding nature, again I agree Creation by it's very nature is not Eternal and thus change and through it the ability to measure it (i.e. time) is an inherent attribute but I don't believe it is a necessary component in understanding God or His Foreknowledge of all things (Omniscience) in which I believe we both agree.
Your point is not necessarily apparent in terms of the need to understand the metaphysics of time for our theological discourse. Causality does not necessarily have anything to do with time. Determination is not necessarily Fatalism. So what is your point?
It is true that everything God knows must occur according to his will. If it did not, then God would be wrong in what he knew. For an omniscient Mind cannot be wrong in what it knows. However, it does not follow from this that all events are determined (i.e. caused by God). God could simply determine that we be self-determining beings in a moral sense. The fact that He knows for certain what free creatures will do with their freedom is enough to make the event determined. But the fact that God does not force them to choose, is enough to establish that human free acts are not determined (caused) by another but by oneself. God determined the fact of human freedom, but free creatures perform the acts of human freedom.
If such is not the case if God is the cause of all human actions, then human beings are not morally responsible. One is only responsible for a choice if there was free will to avoid making it. All responsibility implies the ability to respond, either on one's own or by God's grace. Ought implies can. But if God caused the action, then we could not have avoided it. Hence, we are not responsible.
I will state my hypothesis once again and you please feel free to interject. My view is that God is sovereign and created the world with a predetermined outcome. That this world is the best of all available worlds or it is ideal inasmuch as God created it and he is omniscient, omnipotent, and omnipresent, ie perfect. Therefore, he could have created the world another way but he chose to create this world the way he did. As a part of that creation man was endowed with a free moral agency. The fall resulted from man's rebellion. Sin has now entered the world and completely corrupts man's relationship with God the creator. While God elected some and not others, each one who is elect must believe on Jesus Christ in order to be saved. Those who are non-elect will not believe on Jesus Christ, either due to an inability or lack of opportunity. Regardless, man's will is not coerced or forced or violated in the process of regeneration and conversion to Christ. Apart from the gospel there is no opportunity for salvation.
Well I'm glad you admit it as only a hypothesis because although you suggest your thesis allows for free exercise of human will if you assume God's Foreknowledge is molested by said will I don't honestly see any moral responsibility for evil outside of God Himself as not only the secondary cause which is a given in most theistic theories but in fact the primary one in yours.
I find this morally unacceptable for a 'Good' God and more in line with the Gnostic Demiurge.
Could you address my concerns and perhaps illuminate if I am understand you incorrectly.
Peace.