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Preterism Proof

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No, that is not the question. And the fact you think that is the question proves you don't understand either the question or the answer.

No, it is not. You can't just make this stuff up as you go along.

Nobody has made such a claim, and I have never seen such a silly claim in all my 60 years of discussing eschatology.


Really?
Then How Did verses such as this apply to them, then?
3 Remember therefore how you have received and heard; hold fast and repent. Therefore if you will not watch, I will come upon you as a thief, and you will not know what hour I will come upon you. (Revelation 3:3)

The 1st century people who made up the Church of Sardis are the "you" in this passage are they not?

Did Jesus Come upon THEM "as a thief" as He promised?, or does this passage have no direct application to them and actually Only applies to some other peoples thousands of years removed?

Maybe you think Jesus was issuing an empty threat He had no intention of fulfilling for them?

I could keep guessing how you view this passage, but I don't know.. the only thing I do know is you do not believe the coming of Christ as a thief befell the fist century Church at Sardis the way the Glorified Christ, from Heaven, in this passage literally says it would. I have no idea how you bend and manipulate Revelation 3:3 to fit your view however.
Hopefully you'll enlighten us.

How was this passage directly applicable to the original receivers?
 
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HankD

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I am sorry, brother, but why don't you read what it actually says.

29 And he spake to them a parable; Behold the fig tree, and all the trees; 30 When they now shoot forth, ye see and know of your own selves that summer is now nigh at hand.

"When you see the shoots of the fig tree, and all the trees; then you know that summer is on the way," or any other plants, for that matter.

There is no fig three generation it is given as and example.

As for "this generation" Robycop3 has already confirmed that "this generation" in Mattew 23 was the generation that Jesus was addressing.
No, he was referring to the early summer season time and when you see the appropriate seasonal events happenings. It was not "this generation" or he wouldn't have used something that hadn't presently happened yet.


HankD
 

robycop3

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Since Jesus is never incorrect, then some of mens' understanding of the definition of "genea" in certain contexts is Scripture must be incorrect.

Read Habakkuk 3 to see how the historic events of the Exodus are described in similar terms to the coming of Jesus for the AD 70 destruction.

Jesus said he would come before this generation passed. The earthly events he prophesied took place as prophesied. The heavenly events must also have taken place as prophesied.

The HEAVENLY events, maybe, but not the EARTHLY ones, eschatologically speaking.
 

robycop3

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From the article I posted earlier:

In addition, we are told in Matthew 24:33 who will see the signs: “even so you too, when you see all these things, recognize that He is near, right at the door.” The “you” is them not us

Ok, then, please show us ***PROOF/DOCUMENTATION/EVIDENCE*** those events have already occurred! Shouldn't be too hard, as those are stupendous events, and history would not have missed them!

Yes, we all know J 7 the temple were destroyed, Christians are persecuted with decapitations, there's war & rumor of war, etc. What I'm talking about are the ESCHATOLOGICAL EVENTS, beginning with the doming to power of the "man of sin". Please show us some proof!
 

robycop3

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It was a "coming" in judgement, not a physical return.



Your comments make that quite obvious.



So how does [Edit: Thomas Ice] change “this generation” into a future generation? He adds words to the text. In their book Charting the End Times,[Edit: Thomas Ice] and co-author Tim LaHaye argue that Matthew 24:34 should read, “The generation that ‘sees’ these things will not pass till all is fulfilled.”10 In order to get this meaning, “this” has to be replaced with “the” and four words have to be added to the verse: “The generation that sees these signs will not pass away. . . .” This is not the way to interpret the Bible.

[Edit: Provide a cite for quoted material or delete it.]

For the umpteenth time, PLEASE SHOW US SOME PROOF ! !
 

robycop3

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Mr Cassidy, the great Commission was not addressed to "this generation"

One of the "signs of the end" prophesied by Jesus is that "this Gospel" shall be preaches to the whole world. That's only NOW coming to pass. For several generations after the apostles all died, the Gospel was not introduced to the Orient, the Americas, the South Pacific including Australia & New Zealand, etc. And only NOW is it reaching parts of central South America, some of the Visayan Islands of the Phillipines, and parts of central Africa. remember, the same God that made us, made them also, & He cares as much for them as He does us.
 

robycop3

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LOL,
I named the Man of Sin Roby, you just don't like it.

No, your answer was wrong.

And you have presented a grand total of ZERO scriptures supporting your claim that Paul's man of Sin has a "False Prophet" related to him in any way Biblcially. ZERO

So, Rev. 13 & Rev. 19 aren't Scripture?

All you have is imagination, gesswork and adding to scripture that which can not be found in it's pages.

No, that's what preterists have.

And again untill you provide PROOF that ALL FLESH SAW Yahweh Kindle a fire that burned EVERY GREEN TREE and EVERY FACE from north to south at the time of the 6th century BC Babylonain Exile (Ez 20:33-35,47-48; 21:3-5), your demands of me remain laughable.

It's actually comical how you can demand a certain PROOF from others to support their view that you are unable to povide to support yours..

Who does that?

We're not discussing Old testament events that have come and gone. We're discussing a series of events that OUR LORD & SAVIOR, JESUS CHRIST prophesied would occursurrounding His physical return to earth as its Ruler. So far, His prophecies that've already been fulfilled have been fulfilled LITERALLY, TO THE LETTER, & there's no valid reason to believe the rest won't be fulfilled just-as-literally and exactly. Preterists say they already have been fulfilled, but HAVE NOT PRESENTED ONE QUARK OF PROOF to back up their statements.

Such proof is the ONLY way a preterist can make a case that his assertions are true. Otherwise, all he has is hot air.
 

robycop3

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The question is, can the ORIGINAL AUDIENCE be completely disceted & removed from ANY application?

This is the basic futurist contention (and their basic dilema)

To claim a large portion of the New Testament had ZERO application to the very people the letters were addressed and first delivered to, is a Bold claim, and one that I have seen no scriptural support for in my 15 years of debating eschatology.

During WW2, the people of Kyoto, Japan, among others in that nation, were issued a phonograph record that played the sound of American B-29 bombers flying overhead, along with a warning, "when *YOU* hear that sound in the sky, head for a bomb shelter immediately!" Well, Kyoto never heard that sound, as the Americans had decided to spare it, as it's the cultural and religious center of Japan. But the Japanese didn't know that til after the war. But the people of Kyoto were ready!

As Jesus knew His remaining time on earth as a man was almost over, He had to give His prophecy before He left And among other things He said before then was ,"Watch! Be ready!"

And WE should be ready as well. None of us are guaranteed to be here tomorrow.Whatever state we die in will be our state ETERNALLY. So, Jesus' words ring just as true for us as they did for those who first heard them & recorded them in writing.
 

robycop3

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No, that is not the question. And the fact you think that is the question proves you don't understand either the question or the answer.

No, it is not. You can't just make this stuff up as you go along.

Nobody has made such a claim, and I have never seen such a silly claim in all my 60 years of discussing eschatology.

Such an example occurred when Hezekiah showed Evil-Merodach of Babylon his wealth & that of the temple. Hez received a prophecy that all that wealth would be taken by Babylon, but that prophecy didn't apply to that generation. Hez died C. 687 BC while the Babs didn't attack til C. 605 BC.

Not to mention Jacob prophesied the coming of Shiloh(Jesus) on his deathbed. We can assume from the context that his sons were aware of the Shiloh prophecy before that time. While all the Hebrews, among others, watched for Shiloh, He didn't come til C. 2100 years after Jacob's time.
 

robycop3

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Really?
Then How Did verses such as this apply to them, then?
3 Remember therefore how you have received and heard; hold fast and repent. Therefore if you will not watch, I will come upon you as a thief, and you will not know what hour I will come upon you. (Revelation 3:3)

The 1st century people who made up the Church of Sardis are the "you" in this passage are they not?

Did Jesus Come upon THEM "as a thief" as He promised?, or does this passage have no direct application to them and actually Only applies to some other peoples thousands of years removed?

Maybe you think Jesus was issuing an empty threat He had no intention of fulfilling for them?

I could keep guessing how you view this passage, but I don't know.. the only thing I do know is you do not believe the coming of Christ as a thief befell the fist century Church at Sardis the way the Glorified Christ, from Heaven, in this passage literally says it would. I have no idea how you bend and manipulate Revelation 3:3 to fit your view however.
Hopefully you'll enlighten us.

How was this passage directly applicable to the original receivers?

For all we know, someone of that church might've died suddenly & unexpectedly the very day he/she heard the message of the letter.
 

robycop3

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Several threads filled & closed, and........

...........Still, NO PROOF from preterists to back up their claims!
 

David Kent

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One of the "signs of the end" prophesied by Jesus is that "this Gospel" shall be preaches to the whole world. That's only NOW coming to pass. For several generations after the apostles all died, the Gospel was not introduced to the Orient, the Americas, the South Pacific including Australia & New Zealand, etc. And only NOW is it reaching parts of central South America, some of the Visayan Islands of the Phillipines, and parts of central Africa. remember, the same God that made us, made them also, & He cares as much for them as He does us.
  • Acts 2:5 And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven.
  • Romans 1:5 By whom we have received grace and apostleship, for obedience to the faith among all nations, for his name:
  • Romans 16:26 But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith:
Seems the scripture doesn't agree with you.

 

robycop3

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You can't prove metaphorical language. Once you prove its literal language, then Ill prove it :Sneaky


Jesus' prophecies are NOT metaphorical language. That's the preterists' fave excuse for their lack of PROOF for their assertions.
 

robycop3

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  • Acts 2:5 And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven.
  • Romans 1:5 By whom we have received grace and apostleship, for obedience to the faith among all nations, for his name:
  • Romans 16:26 But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith:
Seems the scripture doesn't agree with you.

Hmmmm..... See any PROOF the Gospel had been preached in Japan or Australia at that time? Seen any ancient pagodas in Jerusalem? Know of any ancient jews that lived in the Americas, japan, ot Australia?
 
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