In some sense, yes!
Again, it is faith! What did Jesus say about others than the disciples casting out devils?
Two things:
Mark 9:39 Forbid him not: for there is no man which shall do a miracle in my name, that can lightly speak evil of me.
Matt 7:23 And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.
We already know which verse you ascribe to; what I wish you would do is tell us your understanding of Matthew 7:23 and how to tell the difference between today's "pentecostal" Christians (those who should not be forbidden, and those who do the same things but Christ says they work iniquity).
In 1 Cor. 13 he is explaining that without love nothing you do is profitable! He goes to the extreme to explain it with his illustrations! Without love nothing is profitable
Exactly. And he uses the statement that
if he spoke in a tongue of angels, without love it would be unprofitable. He then carries this idea over into chapter 14.
Don't you see? Without love, there is no understanding. And since we all agree that tongues are a sign for unbelievers, without understanding we're not showing love.
I trust the Holy Spirit that is praying through me! I can pray with my own understanding AND I can pray with my spirit! It is with our spirit that we are praying.
Is it the Holy Spirit praying through you, or is it your spirit praying?
If it's the Holy Spirit, then you must answer the question: Why is God praying to Himself through you?
If it's your spirit, then you must ask: Why do you not understand your own spirit?
We are warned about the use in the assembly without the interpretation!
Where are we encouraged to use a private prayer language? Where are we told to covet tongues, or a private prayer language?
You're going to try to say 1 Cor 14:28; but that is
not an instruction to pray to ourselves. It is an instruction of what to do when the gift of tongues is improperly used (i.e., no interpreter). It is an instruction of what to do
in the assembly, not alone.
So are you saying that in 1 Cor. 14 is not using it? He is speaking of tongues!
Now you're just not making sense.
YOU
Unless you pray in the spirit this will be hard to explain. If you look at Acts 2,10 they are praising God, magnyfing God in tongues!
In 1 Cor. 14:14 it says our mind is unfruitful. We do not understand what we are saying. It is not unfruitful to our spirit!
How I am edified alone? Self is not edified...our spirit is! I know that the Holy Spirit that is praying through me is praying God's perfect will! I can pray for the interpretation and I receive it!
Let me ask you a question. In Isaiah 28:11,12 What is the refreshing speaking of in verse 12 when it says "THIS is the rest"? It refers back to vs. 11.
ME
But look at at verse 12 again, especially how it ends: "yet they would not hear."
Even this passage talks about tongues being {a sign} for unbelievers! Not for self!
(corrected for clarity; you then went on to point out that tongues are a sign for unbelievers, that unbelievers cannot manifest sign gifts)
ME
...look at Isaiah 28:12 again, and consider carefully that this passage does not encourage a private prayer language, but states what is said over and over in scripture: tongues are a sign for unbelievers. So Isaiah 28:12 cannot be used in the context/manner with which you attempted to use it.
You started down the road to use Isaiah 28:11-12 as a justification for speaking in tongues being a refreshing of the spirit; there is absolutely NO scripture to support that. Further, Isaiah 28:12 ends with "yet they would not hear," which supports everyone's conclusion that tongues are a sign for unbelievers, not for personal private use.
By your question -- "So are you saying that in 1 Cor. 14 is not using it?" -- do I mean that in 1 Cor 14, he is not using a private prayer language, yes, I most assuredly am saying that.