Featured Private prayer language

Awaken - you reference 1 Cor 12:3 to defend what you're saying; yet, didn't God also say "many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? And in thy name cast out devils? And in thy name done many wonderful works? And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you."

You also keep using 1 Cor 14:17, saying that Paul told the Corinthians that they prayed well; but you aren't using the rest of the verse: "but the other is not edified."

You talk about 1 Cor 14:18, where Paul says he speaks in more tongues than any of them; but you don't acknowledge verse 19: "Yet in the church I had rather speak five words with my understanding...than ten thousand words in an unknown tongue."

And yes, it does say "forbid not to speak in tongues"; but the first verse of the chapter says "rather that ye may prophesy", and the first part of that verse says "covet to prophesy." Take a very close look at that; where does it say to rather or covet to speak in tongues?

This "private prayer language" thing? You obviously know what you're praying, or you wouldn't be edified by it (1 Cor 14:4); Paul also says that praying in an unknown tongue without interpretation is unfruitful (1 Cor 14:14). So if you pray alone, in a tongue that you don't know/understand, how can it be edifying?

You've been asked to identify which language it is. This is very simple to answer: it's either a language of man that you haven't studied or learned; or it's a tongue of angels; or it's something else. Scripture doesn't support a tongue of angels or something else; so it must be a language of man that you haven't studied or previously learned. If you don't know which language it is, just say so. If you believe it's a tongue of angels or something else, then you should discuss how scripture supports that.

 

What you are not comprehending is that it is the person that is being disciplined. Paul said the prayer was good....What he said was good...the church was just not being edified!

 

What you are not comprehending is that if the "person" is being given an utterance from the HG not even the "person" can get it wrong. When God acts in a supernatural way His action is perfect.

 

THey professed that they did, but did they? These are the false prophets that the Bible warns about! There are many fakes out there! We will know the real by their fruit!
Speaking in tongues is the Holy Spirit being manifested..the Holy Spirit will not curse God! He will always pray His perfect will!

Yes, I did use the other part earlier in my post or in other threads. I have said all along...tongues in the assembly without the interpretation does not edify the body. But that does not mean what they prayed in the spirit was bad!

Again, I have brought this out in other threads. Praying in the spirit is not a bad thing, just not in the assembly UNLESS there is an interpretation. So Paul spoke in tongues more than all of them...but if not in church, where? In private! Between him and God just like he tells us to do in 13:28.

He is referring to the assembly. In the assembly we should edify all, not just ourselves! Prophesy is for others. Praying in the spirit is speaking to God/it edifies self/it builds the person praying up in his spirit. This is not a bad thing to edify yourself, Jude 20 tells us to build ourselves up. In context of chapter 14 it is correcting the use of praying in the spirit in the assembly. But not forbidding us to pray in private!

Unless you pray in the spirit this will be hard to explain. If you look at Acts 2,10 they are praising God, magnyfing God in tongues!
In 1 Cor. 14:14 it says our mind is unfruitful. We do not understand what we are saying. It is not unfruitful to our spirit!
How I am edified alone? Self is not edified...our spirit is! I know that the Holy Spirit that is praying through me is praying God's perfect will! I can pray for the interpretation and I receive it!
Let me ask you a question. In Isaiah 28:11,12 What is the refreshing speaking of in verse 12 when it says "THIS is the rest"? It refers back to vs. 11.

I believe it is a language that God knows, but the speaker does not. I did say that I do not know the language I pray in! I only recongnize maybe 4 languages in the world when spoken, but only understand 1! When praying in the spirit the languages change from time to time.

 

YOu said...."Originally Posted by Thomas Helwys
Praying in tongues in private which is what those who have the gift of tongues can do when they are not giving a message for interpretation is not the same as everyone being able to speak in a private prayer language. This is where charismatics go completely astray because they cannot understand scripture. And the result? Everybody's vain babblings.

So what I comprehended is that you admitted that praying in tongues is what they that have the gift can do. You just added that not everyone can do it! Therefore you admitted that speaking in tongues is prayer.

So instead of trying to say I am misrepresented you correct me if I am wrong! But that is what you said in the above post! In Bold!

 

Can you speak in any language, even English, and at the same time read the Bible?
YOu can when you pray in the spirit!

 

I am sorry but one has to set aside all reason and play mental gymnastics to believe there is some sort of prayer language.

 

Most people that speak in tongue are usually having to defend them more than any other manifestation! Maybe that is why they are talked about more!

In church, we very rarely here a message in tongues with interpretation. It is usually the other manifestation! So tongues in our service is not the most important one!

So you speak in general...but not for all!

 

He is not getting it wrong! His prayer is good! His prayer in the spirit is perfect!
The apostles had the gift to heal...but they did not heal everyone! So was that gift imperfect? Was the Holy Spirit imperfect?

 

Well then, there would be no need for correct from Paul.

This is so incoherent I have no idea how to address it.

 

Yes, he corrected doing it in the assembly without interpretation! THat needed to be addressed! Also out of order of any of the others in vs. 26-33

YOu implied that tongues was not from the Holy Spirit if it had to be corrected. Jesus corrected the disciples when they could not cast a demon out of a person. So I am showing that just because it has to be corrected does not mean the Holy Spirit is not the one manifesting!

This is really something to consider, but another thread...

 

If the HG gave the utterance but then gave no one the interpretation then the giving of the utterance is in question. It is highly doubtful that the HG would give a message by way of tongues and not also give the interpretation of the tongues so that the message could be understood by all.

Your example does not make the point you are wishing it to. There was no manifestation going on with the disciples. The action wanted by the disciples had not occurred because they approached it in the wrong manner. Whereas with tongues in the church in corinth there is an action being claimed to have happened. So yes if the HG is involved then no correction is necessary.

 

You aree involved in teachings that are at best mistaken, at worst heretical, best to repent and come out of there while you still can!

 

It was a historical record of that the HS did among the Christians in the Apsotolic Age of the church, but NOT the blueprint to how he would continue to Operate all times!

THAT would be found in the Epistles!

 

NO personal prayer tongue in the Bible, and the HS did speak thru those gifted with tongues/interpretation in Apostolic church, for he moved upn them to give forth utterance same way an OT prophet would have...

Do you see that manifesting in your church, that perfect revelation from him ongoing?

 

So we're on the same page: Please identify the "fruit." I have a specific scripture in mind; just want to make sure we're talking about the same thing.

If you don't know what's being said, then how can you verify that it's praying well?

BUT, it does mean it was as a tinkling cymbal, an uncertain sound, a barbarian; and worse, unprofitable. What does "unprofitable" mean?

Which book are you referencing with "13:28"? Did you mean 1 Cor 14:28?

1 Cor 14:28 does not encourage a "private prayer language." And consider this: Carefully read that verse. "If there be no interpreter, then keep silent and speak to yourself and to God."
1) If there be no interpreter - so before you jump up and start speaking in tongues, the implication is that you know the interpretation before you start speaking. Otherwise, how could you follow the command to keep silent if you don't know whether there's an interpreter?
2) Speak to yourself - How can you speak to yourself if you don't know what you're saying?

You avoided my point. The first verse of Chapter 14 says that Paul would rather we seek to prophesy; he says this again in verse 5. And then he ends this portion of his letter by telling them he doesn't forbid them from speaking in tongues (in the context of the church assembly), but then encourages them to covet prophesying.

Take a long, hard look at that word "covet." Coveting your neighbor's wife is a sin; but Paul says we should covet to prophesy. That indicates the gravity, the importance, of desiring that particular gift.

So I ask again: Where are we told to "covet" speaking in tongues?

But look at at verse 12 again, especially how it ends: "yet they would not hear."

Even this passage talks about tongues being for unbelievers! Not for self!

What do you mean by "it is a language that God knows"?

 

Sometimes he does give the interpretation but they will not give it for different reasons! Bottom line is that praying in the spirit...Paul calls prayer!

An action on both parts are needed. You can have a gift and never manifest it! And you are wrong about the disciples, they could not heal without the manifestation! Their problem was lack of faith..but that is another thread!