Featured Private prayer language

I do not see a record of Paul using it at all! Just the correction of the praying in the spirit in the assembly. But he was plain that he did it more than any!
Maybe you can study what they were doing in Acts 2, 10 and 19! They were praising God!

 

What? I will ask again. If it is the HG who does this why would it need to be corrected?

 

again, Acts a transistion book! MUSt get your theology from the Epistles, as those were the letters God gave us to "flesh out" doctrines of the faith!

 

What he did more than any was speak known languages because he was fluent in many. Not some ungodly gibberish.

 

how many Tongues does the bible record for jesus to operate in? Had to be some, for the bible states that he had the HS in overflowing measure, so where were all those tongues again?

 

Awaken can't tell us the languages that "the Holy Spirit" gives her the ability to speak in.
I wonder how many kinds of gibberish there are.
If she can't name the language, can she tell us the name of the gibberish?

 

All kidding aside, this can be a very dangerous areas for Christians who are not well versed in the bible to get involved in, as Awaken might be dealing with spirits that are NOT the Holy Spirit!

 

I quoted Scripture. That is all I did. You don't disagree with me. Your disagreement is with God. Tell him.
The verse is plain. Here it is again:

1Co 14:13 When we speak languages that others don't know, we should pray for the power to explain what we mean.
--Your disagreement is with God. He is the one that tells you the interpretation is for others and not for yourself.
He is the one that tells you that tongues are SPOKEN, and not prayed. Just read the verse and believe it. Do you have a hard time believing God?

The KJV says "spirit." The CEV says "spirit." I think it is just the Awaken translation that says "Spirit".
In fact the ASV, GW (God's Word), ISV, CEV, Darby, Douay-Rheims, ESV, Geneva, Young's, Weymouth, MKJV, LTV (Literal Translation), and still others all have "spirit" in a small "s". None of the translations (and there are many) that I have looked at, have it capitalized.
It refers to the emotional side of humanity.

"in your spirit" simply refers to your emotions. It is not referring to your mind. If you are not thinking about what you are doing, it is rather useless.

Go back to verse 14:
my spirit prays but my mind is useless.
There is a distinction drawn here between the spirit and the mind. He says you can be praying with your spirit (in your emotions) but you are not using your brain/mind. It is totally useless for the church. They don't know what you are talking about. Pure emotion without understanding.

As is shown in verse 14 the answer is very evident right here. When your emotions take over your mind something is wrong. The congregation can't understand what you are saying. Sit down and shut up was the message of Paul.

Look at the title of the thread please. Paul, not once in Scripture, ever condoned private prayer in another tongue or a private prayer language. This is what you are trying to prove. It is not in the Scriptures. Why would you leave it along. Did I just discredit every argument you ever put forth? It sounds like it!

Again, it is in the middle of an illustration. But you ignore that.
Do you take Paul at his word when he said in chapter 13: "I give my body to be burned."
He never did, you know. He was beheaded. But apparently you don't understand what an illustration is.
Nobody gave thanks well. Nobody gave thanks at all. Go back and read the context. For example....
It is an illustration. Suppose, if, for example; Let's say this happens...
And then he gives the illustration of public prayer in the midst of the assembly--an illustration. But the gift of languages was never used that way.

I didn't twist what he said. Here is what he said:
1Co 14:18 I thank God that I speak unknown languages more than any of you.
--He said he spoke in tongues more than all the Corinthians.
Why? Because, although some of them did have the gift, they misused the gift. He thanked the Lord that he had the gift, and used the gift as God intended it to be used. That is why it is thus worded: "I thank God that I speak in unknown languages more that any of you." Why? They misused the gift.

So pray; but not in tongues. Nowhere in verse 28 is tongues mentioned. Why do you insist in the destruction of God's Word by adding to it.
Pray! Be a prayer warrior. But you cannot pray in other languages so quit being a hypocrite by telling us that you can. Can you pray in Punjabi? Then why tell us that you can pray in another language when you can't? The word for that is fraud. It is a criminal offense.

You lack a basic understanding of the English language, but only because you have been brainwashed by Charismatic teachers.
All throughout the NT, wherever "tongues" or "languages" have been mentioned it has been miraculously given as a gift and as a real language known to others and known to the person speaking it. That is why it is called THE GIFT OF LANGUAGES.
In Acts 2, they miraculously spoke in other languages. God gave them the ability to speak in Arabic, Cretian, and the other language groups mentioned. If they spoke in those languages, quoted Scripture in those languages, they had to be able to think in those languages. They had to know what it was they were saying. They were not mindless. God is not the author of confusion. Paul condemned not using the mind. They knew what they were speaking--praises to God, and exactly what those praises were, and in what language they were in. God gave them that gift. It was not gibberish; it was a gift of languages.

 

The correction was praying in the spirit in church! The praying was not bad...he said it was giving thanks well! It was not edifying the church! THe Holy Spirit gives the utterance! We still have to open our mouths! So the discipline was to keep quiet in the assembly UNLESS we have the interpretation!

 

YOu will not find it in the life of Jesus. You also will not find it in the OT. These two gifts (tongues and interpretaion) are distinctive of the Holy Spirit dispensation or age which began with the outpouring of the Holy Ghost on the Day of Pentecost as recorded in Acts 2.

Jesus did mention it in Mark 16 as supernatual signs that are to follow believers.

 

No, it was not JUST a transitional book!

 

He was fluent in them because he learned them! Tongues are a supernatual manifestation of the Holy Spirit! It is not a learned gift!

 

I do not know why I even respond to such nonsense!
NOwhere in the Bible does it say we know the language we speak!
"Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret"I ask you AGAIN... why does he ask us to pray for the interpretation if we know the language or understand it!

 

1 Corinthians 12:3!!

 

So now you are going admit that praying in tongues is private prayer???

 

I have made my claim with scriptures! You have to ignore or twist scriptures to believe as you do!
YOU also add to much of your own assumptions to make it line up with your man made theology!

 

1Co 14:13 When we speak languages that others don't know, we should pray for the power to explain what we mean.
This translation gives the sense of what was going on very clearly, but you don't get it. You don't want to understand. As many times as I have explained this to you (at leas a half dozen) you will not accept it, believe it, or possibly even read it or try to understand it. Am I right?

Let's start again:
1Co 14:13 When we speak languages that others don't know, we should pray for the power to explain what we mean.
1. The word languages is plural, implying that there are more than one language group in the church at Corinth.
2. We should pray for the meaning of the language because there is more than one language group present. That is why an interpreter was required in the first place. You don't seem to comprehend that.

Suppose you went on a mission trip with a dozen of your friends. You go to a place like India where they all speak Hindi. Your in a village area and no one speaks English. If God were to give you the gift of languages:
1. It would be in one of their churches for the churches benefit.
2. He would provide an interpreter.
3. The interpreter would be for the sake of your dozen friends that speak English.
4. You would have the gift of tongues, that is speaking Hindi. You would know it is Hindi, be able to think in Hindi, be eloquent and highly proficient in Hindi, and communicate well with all the Hindi-speaking East Indian people there.
5. The gift of interpretation would be for the benefit of your dozen friends in the church that they may be edified as well.
--There are two language groups, and thus the necessity of an interpreter.
If there is no interpreter; pray that YOU may interpret. You must do double duty. Understand!

Again:
1Co 14:13 When we speak languages that others don't know, we should pray for the power to explain what we mean.

 

14 Reasons why there is no such thing as a private prayer language:

HERE: http://www.wayoflife.org/index_files/a_private_prayer_lanuage.html

 

Are you reading your own words? So according to you the HG gave utterance at the wrong time? The HG gave utterance but they were to shut up anyway? The HG gave utterance when He knew there was no interpreter?