• Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

PSA Justice vs Biblical Justice

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
This is all arguing semantics that have no real effect on what Christ did. It’s already done.
It is not semantics but defining not only what Christ has done (reconciled man and God) but what He is actively doing.

The "it" is Christ reconciling mankind and God - the Firstborn. That is accomplished.

But now is the ministry of reconciliation whereby men may be reconciled to God, and Christ mediating on behalf of those who believe as their High Priest in the present.

The future is the realization of salvation - that we will be made into His image, righteous, glorified.
 

Martin Marprelate

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I agree, with the caveat that this was justice in the biblical sence (righteousness), reconciling God and man in the Person of Christ (Christ being this Reconciliation, the Firstborn of all who will believe) rather than God punishing our sins to satisfy some secular judicial philosophy.
I'm not sure that 'the soul that sins shall die' is a secular judicial philosophy. The good news is that the Lord Jesus has willingly taken upon Himself our sins and the punishment due to us (Isaiah 53:5 etc.) and that as a result we are indeed reconciled to God (Romans 5:6-9).
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
I'm not sure that 'the soul that sins shall die' is a secular judicial philosophy. The good news is that the Lord Jesus has willingly taken upon Himself our sins and the punishment due to us (Isaiah 53:5 etc.) and that as a result we are indeed reconciled to God (Romans 5:6-9).
It is not a secular philosophy but the context is secular. That is a verse many corrupt by expecting an English translation from the context - they misuse the English word "soul", which is not in the part of the verse you quote...the verse says "it shall die" referring back to הַנֶּ֥פֶשׁ which means "life" (that which breathes)...it is the same word in Genesis 1:20 and 21 (living creatures).

"Soul" is not a mistranslation as it means "person" (you hear captains acvounting for the "souls on board"). But choosing different meanings for English words chosen is poor study.

The verse is from Ezekiel 18. The context is secular (God prohibiting Israel from punishing people for the crimes of their fathers). God describes His justice several passages down.

But yes, it is the person who sins that shall die unless that person repents and has a new heart, then God will forgive that person (Ezekiel 18).
 

Martin Marprelate

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
God punishing our sins to satisfy some secular judicial philosophy

I'm not sure that 'the soul that sins shall die' is a secular judicial philosophy.
It is not a secular philosophy but the context is secular.
I think perhaps you ought to make up your mind.
But yes, it is the person who sins that shall die unless that person repents and has a new heart, then God will forgive that person (Ezekiel 18).
Leviticus 17:11. 'For the life of the flesh is in the blood, and I have given it to you upon the altar to make atonement for your souls; for it is the blood that makes atonement for the soul.'
Hebrews 9:22. 'And according to the law almost all things are purified [or 'cleansed'] with blood, and without shedding of blood there is no remission [or 'forgiveness'].'
1 Peter 1:18-19. 'Knowing that you were not redeemed with corruptible things like silver or gold, from your aimless way of life received by tradition from your forefathers, but with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot.'
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
I think perhaps you ought to make up your mind.

Leviticus 17:11. 'For the life of the flesh is in the blood, and I have given it to you upon the altar to make atonement for your souls; for it is the blood that makes atonement for the soul.'
You miss my point.

The only verses that applies in your quote is Leviticus. The reason is it is the only one that uses the same word for "souls" (Ezekiel was not written in the same language as Hebrews and 1 Peter). And again, in Leviticus...it means "life", "creation".

But we know this also because the context of Ezekiel.

In Ezekiel "the soul/ person who sings must die" is not referencing God's judgment but the actions of the Israelites - God telling THEM not to punish the sons for sins of the fathers and to abandon their saying.

Men do not have the power to kill or destroy the souls of other men. They can only take our life.

So you have the history of the use of that Hebrew word (that you pretend was either English or Greek), you have the context of Ezekiel 18:1-4, and you have the fact that the verse was God commanding Israel not to hold the sons guilty of the sins of the fathers.


Interestingly enough, were you to treat Ezeliel 18 as an actual chapter rather than a mini-reference tool, the passage refutes your theology.

1. God commands Israel not to hold the sons accountable for the sins of the father - the person who sins must die.

2. Then God (several verses afterwards) transitions from Israel judging the sons to His judgment which He says they do not accept.

3. This judgment is forgiving the sins of men based on them "turning from doing evil", "turning to God", "a new heart", "repenting".


You are trying to study the Bible, and I applaud your effort. But you are doing so by extracting words and phrases you think will support your theology. That is a mistake.
 
Top