A KJV-only Spanish missionary named Robert Breaker III reported to have the following conversation with Mr. Gomez. His conversation suggests that changes were made in the Spanish Bible to make it agree with the KJV and not the original language texts. This is from his posted information entitled "History and Truth of the Reina-Valera-Gomez Spanish Bible" that is at his
www.rrb3.com/ web site.
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Eventually, a mutual friend told me that Mr. Gomez had heard of me, and wanted to speak with me about his bible. So, I called him on the phone with interest and asked him details about his version.
When I asked him who did the revision, he told me, "
I was the final authority on the project, making all the changes myself." (I didn't like this, as this isn't what Valera desired in his preface). Although, he confessed he had
help from others who emailed him suggestions for changes.
When I asked him if he knew Hebrew or Greek, he replied, "No."
Mr. Gomez further continued, by telling me he wished to have a pure Bible in Spanish, and if his wasn't pure enough, and others desired to turn to a purer Bible in Spanish, then he would change as well, even going to the 1602 Purified if others thought it was the best.
He seemed humble and nice, and I enjoyed speaking with him. But I was anything but impressed with his translating methods. How could he translate the Bible if he didn't know Hebrew or Greek? (Isn't that what Valera wanted)? And how was he doing it? And how could one man, as the final authority on the work, qualify as
pious MEN?
Before hanging up, I asked Mr. Gomez to tell me if his translation was perfect. He wouldn't answer. But on his website, I read his following words about his version: "
...What I am presenting to you, in my opinion, is the perfect word of God."
Is the RVG the
perfect word of God in Spanish? Does it contain error? Did it go verse by verse with the Greek TR?
With all this in mind, I obtained a copy of the first edition of the Gomez Bible, and began studying it, to see if it did indeed read along with the King James, and if it followed the right texts. What I found was astonishing, if not shocking!
LOOKING AT THE FIRST EDITION OF THE GOMEZ BIBLE
As I read the first edition of the RVG, I found a plethora of errors, mistakes, and problems. Because it was only a work of two years, I chalked up many of the
spelling mistakes as the rush to get it to the printer.
But there were many things in the
first edition of the Gomez Spanish Bible that I could not accept, much less believe, that are far worse than just spelling mistakes. I'll let you be the judge, as I give just a few examples below:
DID JESUS GO TO A DRINKING PARTY?
In John 2:10, I found what I think is the most ridiculous Bible reading I've ever seen in
any Bible. I can't believe this was even printed in the Gomez Bible. For in the Gomez we read:
"Y le dice: Todo hombre sirve primero el buen vino, y cuando ya
est�n borrachos, entonces el que es inferior mas t� has guardado el buen vino hasta ahora."
This verse says that those at this marriage party were DRUNK, and not with new wine. This verse literally says they were
wasted,
inebriated,
smashed,
soaring,
two sheets into the wind,
liquored up,
boozed,
full of alcohol, etc.!
The verse in English is: "And saith unto him, Every man at the beginning doth set forth good wine; and
when men have well drunk, then that which is worse: but thou hast kept the good wine until now."
In KJV here uses the word DRUNK, but this means they were
full, or satisfied with what they drank. This verse is not saying that that the men of the party were drinking liquor! But in the Gomez, they used the word for being intoxicated!
No Spanish Bible makes this mistake! (Except the Enzinas, which reads
embriagados. I know as I checked them all!)
The original 1602 says: "Y dizele, Todo hombre pone primero el buen vino: y quando ya eftan hartos, entonces lo que es peor: mas tu has guardado el buen vino hafta ahora.
Notice it says they were
hartos, which means
full or
satisfied. And in the margin of the original 1602 we read, "
Han bien bebido" (They had drunken well), showing that even Valera didn't think the men were intoxicated!
(Note: The 2nd Edition of the Gomez fixes this. But the question needs be asked, How could this have ever gotten printed in the Gomez Bible to begin with???)
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