Humblesmith said:
It is not a sin to follow someone's wishes and cremate.
However, as dan and Marcia have pointed out, the church's position for 2000 years has been burial.
I think this is improvable, and truly a Western point of view. Are you sure it is the Eastern view? Can you give me evidence from church history about Eastern Christianity? The Japanese Christian point of view has been cremation for hundreds of years (since Francis Xavier).
I just looked in the index of my
History of the Church by Eusebius (early 4th cent.). Nothing. I then did a computer search on my "Church Fathers" disk, and found 50 references to "burial" with only one telling how to do it. According to the apocryphal "Acts of Philip," Philip wanted to be buried in Syrian paper rather than linen like Christ. (By the way, in Japan we bury after cremation, so the term "burial" itself does not mean interment.)
The term "interment" occurs only 14 times in the Church Fathers, and none of those times mandate interment. Besides, none of these mentions were in the apostolic fathers (nor did the term "burial" occur in the apostolic fathers), meaning that no one in the early church had a thing to say about burial.
There is a mention of cremation in the Syriac translation of "The Apology of Aristedes the Philosopher" (125 A. D.) describing the customs of the Egyptians. However, a direct translation from the Greek gives "burnt as offerings" instead of "cremated." At any rate, Aristides did not condemn the practice, he only mentioned it. Now, if the Egyptians did cremate and God disapproved, we would expect to find mention of it in the Mosaic Law. We do not.
There is also a mention of Indian cremation in a pseudo-Clementine work, but it doesn't condemn it per se.
So, the idea that the Christian church has always practice interment has no historical proof for at least the first 400-500 years after Christ. In fact, I found opposite evidence in my search.
The above mentioned Aristides wrote in 125 A. D., "They also err who believe that fire is a God. For fire was made for the use of men, and it is controlled by them, being carried about from place to place for boiling and roasting all kinds of meat, and even for (the burning of) dead bodies. Moreover it is extinguished in many ways, being quenched through man’s agency. So it cannot be allowed that fire is a God, but it is a work of God." So this Christian philosopher thought fire was a gift of God which could be used in cremation.
In his last three chapters, Aristides describes Christian customs, but never discusses the mode of burial. So, how did the early Christians conduct funerals? They didn't tell us. So why should it matter?:type: