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Scripture dictation, mechanical or otherwise

rlvaughn

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...I do object to using the term "mechanical" in reference to verbal inspiration. God does not do things "mechanically." ... However, the term "dictation" in reference to verbal inspiration is acceptable.
In other words, inspiration was a miraculous process.
I know some people do not like the appeal to "mystery" (and probably sometimes it is an excuse), but in areas relating to Almighty God and puny man there is reason to realize we can't/don't fully comprehend the full miraculous power of God. He can do things that we struggle to explain using ideas/things to which we can relate. That is one reason I find it important to agree on the results of what God did with inspiration even when we might struggle expressing just how we accomplished it.
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Well, I wasn't trying to contradict SBG there, but simply explaining what a "mechanical" form of dictation would be. I think SBG and I pretty much agree theologically about verbal inspiration.

The whole thing with SBG started with me, unfortunately, making a point of basic grammar (verb or adjective?) about the Greek for "God-breathed in 2 Tim. 3:16. I wasn't differing with him on exegesis, only on grammar but I'm not sure he gets that. I should have simply left him alone.

To be more clear, I do not object to the term "dictation" being used for the process of verbal inspiration. After all, my own grandfather, John R. Rice, believed in using the term. He followed 19th century Swiss theologian Louis Gaussen in that.

I do object to using the term "mechanical" in reference to verbal inspiration. God does not do things "mechanically." Every single word of the original manuscripts was given exactly by the Holy Spirit, making it 100% the Word of God. At the same time, 100% of the Word of God was given through human instruments, prepared by God.

The term "mechanical" is used by liberals to mock evangelicals. Harry Emerson Fosdick mocked the Biblical doctrine as "mechanically inerrant" (John R. Rice, Our God-Breathed Book, the Bible, 262). Even Neo-Orthodox theologians use the same term to mock us, with Emil Brunner saying that the churches "are still suffering from the incubus of the old mechanical theory of inspiration" (Ibid., 263). Karl Barth spoke of "The historic conception of the Bible with its cult of heroes and the mechanical doctrine of verbal inspiration..." (Ibid., 265). So the accusation that verbal inspiration is "mechanical dictation" is an invention of liberals, mocking us Bible believers. However, the term "dictation" in reference to verbal inspiration is acceptable.

Thanks John. I do believe that we do very much agree on verbal inspiration. Where we do differ, is on the use of "θεόπνευστος", in 2 Tim. 3:16, where this adjective is understood in the passive, as the verb "φερομενοι", is in 2 Peter 1:21. If we still differ on this, I am sure we can move on from it. My understaning of Inspiration is "dictation", without anything else, which I believe you also accept. Is this because of the use of the passive φερομενοι?
 

Yeshua1

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God "made" the Writers of the Bible write what they did, as though He held their hands as they wrote
God still allowed them to record down as in their own style and wau of speaking, as Luke and Paul vocabulary much better then say Peters was, or Amos!
 

Yeshua1

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No mechanical dictation

God inspired these men to write inerrantly. It is obvious that their education and ability is evident in word choice, structure, and eloquence.
Luke and Paul did not write down as Amos or as Peter did!
 

Yeshua1

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I personally think that’d be dictation whereas mechanical would be forced like a robot. However that is just my “current” take on it (not set in stone) so far and am curious myself as to how it’s viewed by others.
Apostles did use scribes at times, as that would be more like dictation!
 

Yeshua1

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2 Samuel 23:2, "The Spirit of the LORD spoke by me, And His word was on my tongue"

The words that David spoke, were the very Words that the Holy Spirit put in his mouth. David is the "instrument" of God's Words to humans. Likewise all the Writers of the Bible.

Luke 12:12, "for the Holy Spirit will teach you in that very hour what you ought to say.”

Jeremiah 1:9, "Then the Lord put out his hand and touched my mouth. And the Lord said to me, “Behold, I have put my words in your mouth"

Numbers 22:38, " And Balaam said to Balak, “Look, I have come to you! Now, have I any power at all to say anything? The word that God puts in my mouth, that I must speak.”

Exodus 20:1, "And God spoke all these words, saying..."
The Holy Spirit made sure that what was recorded down was the very word of God, and yet there was the human factor involved in that process!
 

Yeshua1

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the Greek passive in 2 Tim. 3:16, and 2 Peter 1:21 disagrees with you. You have still not addressed this. Once you have, you will have a better understanding.
So when Paul stated this is my opinion of the issue, he was inspired, which he indeed was, but not dictating it forth?
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
God still allowed them to record down as in their own style and wau of speaking, as Luke and Paul vocabulary much better then say Peters was, or Amos!

change of style and vocabulary, does not mean that they were not told what to write!
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
The Holy Spirit made sure that what was recorded down was the very word of God, and yet there was the human factor involved in that process!

The very Word of God, with a human touch? So, the Bible is not really the Word of God, but God/man.
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
So when Paul stated this is my opinion of the issue, he was inspired, which he indeed was, but not dictating it forth?

see what Paul says at the end of 1 Cor 7:40, "according to my judgment; and I think I also have the Spirit of God". His own advice is also from the Spirit of God!
 

John of Japan

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Thanks John. I do believe that we do very much agree on verbal inspiration. Where we do differ, is on the use of "θεόπνευστος", in 2 Tim. 3:16, where this adjective is understood in the passive, as the verb "φερομενοι", is in 2 Peter 1:21. If we still differ on this, I am sure we can move on from it. My understaning of Inspiration is "dictation", without anything else, which I believe you also accept. Is this because of the use of the passive φερομενοι?
In 1971 I was at Bob Jones University. My evangelist grandfather had written his magnum opus, Our God-Breathed Book, the Bible, which I have quoted in this thread. The president of BJU, Dr. Bob Jones, Jr., refused to recommend the book along with the Bible faculty there, since JRR's book showed that one of the faculty had improperly used the term "mechanical dictation" in a book he wrote. Jones and his faculty then accused John R. Rice of holding to "mechanical dictation," though his book had two full chapters on why he did not, but did believe the term "dictation" was proper. (I have quoted two modern systematic theologians earlier in this thread who recognized the clear difference in JRR's book)

At that time I researched the doctrine of inspiration heavily, and came through to believe in verbal-plenary inspiration. Both verses you mention, with the adjective :)p) θεοπνευστος and the participle φερομενοι were instrumental in persuading me. It was a very traumatic time for me, but God used it to bring me to solid theological ground.
 

Yeshua1

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In 1971 I was at Bob Jones University. My evangelist grandfather had written his magnum opus, Our God-Breathed Book, the Bible, which I have quoted in this thread. The president of BJU, Dr. Bob Jones, Jr., refused to recommend the book along with the Bible faculty there, since JRR's book showed that one of the faculty had improperly used the term "mechanical dictation" in a book he wrote. Jones and his faculty then accused John R. Rice of holding to "mechanical dictation," though his book had two full chapters on why he did not, but did believe the term "dictation" was proper. (I have quoted two modern systematic theologians earlier in this thread who recognized the clear difference in JRR's book)

At that time I researched the doctrine of inspiration heavily, and came through to believe in verbal-plenary inspiration. Both verses you mention, with the adjective :)p) θεοπνευστος and the participle φερομενοι were instrumental in persuading me. It was a very traumatic time for me, but God used it to bring me to solid theological ground.
What is it that one must hold to a mechanical view in order to have it inspired by the Holy Spirit? Does He not have the means to overcome any and all human limitations? Is not trhe Lord jesus both fully Human and also fully God, so the scriptures are both human creations and Deity inspired also?
 

John of Japan

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What is it that one must hold to a mechanical view in order to have it inspired by the Holy Spirit? Does He not have the means to overcome any and all human limitations? Is not trhe Lord jesus both fully Human and also fully God, so the scriptures are both human creations and Deity inspired also?
Jones also believed in verbal-plenary inspiration. It was just that he thought the term "dictation" should not be used to describe inspiration. So one does not have to use the term "dictation" to describe it, but to Rice it was a useful term.
 
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