To explain what tongues without interpretation is like!
Speaking into the air, speaking to God is what it is like when none in the assembly understand.
Think! Does Paul ascribe PURPOSE in verse 2 or simply makes an ASSERTION of fact based upon the fact that NONE else understand it? The Greek nor English provide any grammatical indications of PURPOSE being stated. No "hina" clauses. No "because" clauses. It is the indicative mood - which simply makes assertions. None of the verses you quote contain any PURPOSE statements. This is your IMAGINATION period. You are assigning PURPOSE where the text does not.
No, I do not ignore it! The need for it would be to explain what it was like when they speak in tongues without the interpretation. It does not edify the church!
Would it not be equally true if NO HUMANS understand something that is a spiritual gift of God that in such a circumstance such speaking would be understood only by God alone???????? Common sense????? No purpose clauses, no purpose statements just descriptions of circumstances.
What you ignore is all other scriptures that I have shared over and over showing and confirming vs. 2 is speaking to God! Praying is speaking to God! Giving thanks is speaking to God. WHen you keep silent and speak to yourself and God...that is still speaking to God! It confirms what he says in vs. 2!
None of these scripture provide any PURPOSE clause or English statements of purpose! - NOT ONE! They are found in the indicative mood that simply provides narrative. However, Paul does provide purpose statements that it is "TO THIS PEOPLE" and it is "FOR" unbelievers who are PEOPLE not God.
I agree that tongues without the interpretation is not understood by anyone but God! But it is still SPEAKING TO GOD! He is not condeming speaking to God/praying in the spirit/ blessing with the spirit..he is just correcting doing it in church without the intepretation.
Only if the CONTENT is prayer! However, if it is "prophesy" or "doctrine" or "revelation" content it is "TO YOU" = People - v. 6 ; it is "FOR" unbelievers" = People!
We are to speak to them through revelation, knowledge, by prophesying or doctrine so that it would profit them!
He does not say "through" or "by" but "with" and there is a difference. Doctrine is not a speaking gift but CONTENT of speech. He did not say "prophesying" which is a gift but "prophecy" which is CONTENT from God. Revelation is CONTENT from God. Knowledge is CONTENT.
The word "tongues" simply means DIALECTS and a Dialect does not edify anyone if there is no intelligble sounds and/or content which provides edification in the faith.
Finally, he unequivocally states that speaking in tongues is speaking "TO YOU"
6 ¶ Now, brethren, if I come
unto you speaking with tongues, what shall I profit you, except I shall
speak to you either by revelation, or by knowledge, or by prophesying, or by doctrine?
Just as he says later that tongues are "FOR unbelievers" = people and "to this people" = people.
....
Think about what you are saying?
Try reading verse 5 before reading verse 6. He is not against them speaking in tongues correctly by the principle of edification for all. Verse 6 simply defines the CONTENT of speaking in tongues which would provide such edification!
He has already told them that tongues without the interpretation can not be understood by men. Why would he turn around and tell them to speak in tongues by prophesying, revelation etc. if man can not understand what what he is saying? THat does not make sense! He is not telling them to speak to man in tongues!
Read verse 5 before reading verse 6 and that will answer your objection. Because he wants them to speak in tongues the correct way - the way of edification (v. 5) and verse 6 provides the proper content of speaking in tongues which will provide that edification. Verses 6-11 demonstrate this is speaking with understanding and meaning.
Because you reject what "the rest" and "the refreshing" is! What does Is. say he spoke to them? "To whom He said, "this is the rest with which you may cause the weary to rest," And, "this is the refreshing"; Yet they would not hear!
So tongues being a manifestation of the Holy Spirit would initiate a rest causing the weary to rest (to console and give consolation to). That is what he said! ANd the people would not hear what he said!
You can't be serious????? Your intepretation is rediculous as well as IMPOSSIBLE for many contextual based reasons.
1. Dialects are the "sign"
of it not the impartation of rest and refreshing. Do you know what a "sign" is versus what a "sign" is "of"????? A "sign" only serves as an indicator of something more important than it - rest and refreshing.
2. Dialects are a "sign" to UNBELEIVERS. Tongues cannot impart "rest" and "refreshing" for UNBELIEVERS.
3. The immediate context provides where the "rest" and "refreshing" FOR UNBELEIVERS is found - not in tongues - but in Christ - Isa. 28:16 - This is a Messanic prophetic context.
I did not say all those others were spiritual gifts! Why did you leave out prophesy?? Did you not like that word and change it??[
He did not say "prophesying" which is an act and spiritual ability but "prophecy" which CONTENT from God.
You know I could say the same thing about you...but I do not believe you are demon possessed just because you do not believe as I do!
Where did I say you were demon "possessed"? I never said such a thing. Do you know the difference between "possession" and "oppression" or "influence"? True children of God cannot be possessed by Satan only oppressed or influenced or guided willingly.
