it's the same as verse 13OK, that is viable. But what of Romans 10:9-10?
When we confess Jesus with our mouth, it's the same as making ourselves known by His Name. Or calling His Name upon ourselves. This is post-conversion, and is to the end. It's the same thing as Jesus wrote in Matthew 10: "if you confess Me before men....whoever endures to the end will be saved"
Not saved from hell, but saved from shame before the Father - at Christ's coming. That's why Rom 10:11 says "whoever believes in Him will not be put to shame"
When will some be put to shame? At His coming (see 1John 2:28)
Check all the OT references Paul used in and around this chapter. It's eschatological
Acts 16:31 is one of those places where it's not 100% evident within the text which aspect of salvation is in view. So everyone is going to bring a preconceived notion to the text, and I'm no exception.And why didnt Paul correct the Philippian jailer when he asked "what must I do to be saved"? Someone else told me that was referring to "making salvation progressive and permanent", but then that is making ultimate glorification and permanency of salvation based on something we do.
don't subscribe to Election in either a Calvinist nor Arminian fashion. Both sides sorely misunderstand the context of Election, thereby misunderstanding how it works. It's as though tge two sides are arguing whether a bicycle has three wheels or four. The answer is neitherSo that is like making regeneration unconditional and glorification conditional. But would that not undermine the doctrine of Unconditional election if there is a condition to make one's salvation permanent? (see limited atonement thread post 61)