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Side comments on the "William & Myself" thread...

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NaasPreacher (C4K)

Well-Known Member
Four posts in a row by Mr Correa and nothing but opinions.

Please, one verse that says that God gave his Word only in 1611 English.

Surely one scrap of Bible evidence is not too much to ask.

I don't see how Hebrews 4v3 - "Heb 4:3 For we which have believed do enter into rest, as he said, As I have sworn in my wrath, if they shall enter into my rest: although the works were finished from the foundation of the world.
" - proves your point.
 

John of Japan

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by william s. correa:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by John of Japan:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Askjo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by TCassidy:
I did not claim there were bibles in all languages. YOU DID! Are you honest enough to admit you spoke falsely? If not, back up your false claim!
Did I? You are 100% wrong because you rejected Romans 16:26. YOU DENY that God is interested in having His Words translated accurately into the languages of every person in this world. </font>[/QUOTE]Here's a problem. Oftentimes the first Bible translated into a language is not very accurate. A KJVO advocate might say that the best Bible in Japanese is the Motoyaku ("Original Translation"), which was the first complete Bible in Japanese. It was translated from the KJV with reference to the TR, Chinese Bible of Morrison, etc. However, it was a lousy translation which I wouldn't use even if it were in print. Just one example: "wine" in the KJV was sometimes translated as sake ("rice wine," a very powerful drink). So in Japan, an MV is a much better translation than the supposed "KJV type" translation. Which would you use? </font>[/QUOTE]How much POISON is in rat poison? the devil never "ADDS" to the Word he "TAKES AWAY" from it;he knows that people who have read the KJB )If they studied it) if something was added they would know it wasn't there: So he always takes away from the word, he is a thief and a liar and a murderer from the beggining! </font>[/QUOTE]You refuse to answer my questions man-to-man. But let me get this straight. Are you actually calling a Japanese translation of the Word of God (which I assume you have never read nor can you read) "poison?" Unbelievable! I sincerely hope you are not an IFB like me. If you are, I'm embarrassed.

Let me tell you, some Japanese folk just heard for the very first time the Gospel today in my church from the Word of God. And I am absolutely thrilled that God gave me the opportunity. And the Bible translation I used, though not a perfect translation, was not poison but the sweet Word of God.
 

NaasPreacher (C4K)

Well-Known Member
Please answer John's question Mr Correa - if you are calling this Japanese Bible poisen you are in clear violation of Baptist Board rules. It does appear that this is what you have done.
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Mr. Correa, I am amazed at your statement that the devil always takes away from God's word. First, he says it's not true, as he did to Eve. next, he adds ideas and interpretations, such as salvation by works(in direct contradiction of Scripture), the false "seven church ages" doctrine(clearly man-made, made by twisting the first chapters of Revelation) and the KJVO myth.(Not found in Scripture whatsoever)

The devil will use ANY means he can to distort the meaning of God's word. He isn't limited to just removing some of it. His MAIN weapon is twisting it, ADDING interpretations that aren't in it.
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by TCassidy:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Askjo:
Did I?
Yes, you did. Here is what you said, "Do you deny God provided His Word to all nations? God DID!!!" </font>[/QUOTE]To whom I asked? C4K or God? I said that God provided His Words to ALL nations according to this verse.
No, I do not reject Romans 16:26. I believe Romans 16:26.Neither do I deny that God is interested in all people of all languages You claimed that God already did that. That is not true
I said God provided His Words to all nations according to this verse, but you said that is not true. Contradict yourself with your saying, "I believe Romans 16:26."

[ April 16, 2006, 03:28 PM: Message edited by: Askjo ]
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by C4K:
No one denied Romans 16v26, all I asked for was a list of all the Bibles in all languages. I would be happy with 30-40 instead of 5,000 if that would be easier for you.
You said that 5 is not enough, because you overlooked my saying, "And more." I looked at your post here saying "30-40" Can you name all of 30-40 for me?
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by C4K:
Four posts in a row by Mr Correa and nothing but opinions.

Please, one verset says that God gave his Word only in 1611 English.
Why you ask REPEATEDLY? The EASIEST answer to your question is Romans 16:26. He provided you His most certain Word: the KJV for English-speaking people available today. If you speak German for example, He provided you the Luther's Bible.
 

NaasPreacher (C4K)

Well-Known Member
Well, what about another 30-40? I did not claim that God has given His word to every language, you did. I have no burden of proof, you do.

You have no proof, not one bit, for your claims or your interpretation of Romans 16v26. God's promises are not limited to Israel, but to all nations, that is all Romans 16v26 is saying.
 

rsr

<b> 7,000 posts club</b>
Moderator
Originally posted by Askjo:
If you speak German for example, He provided you the Luther's Bible.
Which one? The one without the Comma Johannine — the one Luther actually translated — or the one with it, which was published after his death and he couldn't complain?
 

EdSutton

New Member
Originally posted by rsr:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Askjo:
If you speak German for example, He provided you the Luther's Bible.
Which one? The one without the Comma Johannine — the one Luther actually translated — or the one with it, which was published after his death and he couldn't complain? </font>[/QUOTE]Heh! Heh!

:cool:
laugh.gif
laugh.gif


Ed
 

EdSutton

New Member
Oh, FTR?? Is there a 'redneck' Bible, so's Ah kin gets one in mah "native tongue"? And which mss. grouping(s) is this here'en trans-er-lated from - DSS or Masoretic in the OT; Majority, "TR", "MV" or some 'unknown and undefined' combo of the above in the NT?

Ed
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by C4K:
Well, what about another 30-40?
I see you did not provide these names of 30-40 because you said 5 is not enough.
I did not claim that God has given His word to every language, you did. I have no burden of proof, you do.
Did I? You are right that I said that because the Bible said so.
You have no proof, not one bit
Ok, let's see the proof. When I said that God provided His Words to all nations, you hold the Bible, namely the KJV, with your hand. Let me ask you one question: WHERE DID YOU GET THE BIBLE?
 

Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
Danger, Brother Ed.
I know a fellow that got a copy of the
REDNECK BIBLE. He read halfway through
the book and his trailer park done
went flat and burned :(
 

NaasPreacher (C4K)

Well-Known Member
Originally posted by Askjo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by C4K:
Well, what about another 30-40?
I see you did not provide these names of 30-40 because you said 5 is not enough.
I did not claim that God has given His word to every language, you did. I have no burden of proof, you do.
Did I? You are right that I said that because the Bible said so.
You have no proof, not one bit
Ok, let's see the proof. When I said that God provided His Words to all nations, you hold the Bible, namely the KJV, with your hand. Let me ask you one question: WHERE DID YOU GET THE BIBLE?
</font>[/QUOTE]I am amazed - you said God provided His word in every language - I asked you to give me 30-40 examples. You can't do it can you? Then you want me to provide 30-40 examples to support your fallacious reasoning? I must be a real idiot, I am not following your line of reasoning here at all.

Your passage does not say God has given a translation of His word in every language on earth. If it said that it would be wrong, and the Bible is never wrong. There are many languages which do not have a solid, reliable translation of God's word. It says that God has made His message available to all peoples, not just the Jews.


Let me see - the KJV on my desk was given to me by my parents in 1973, the one I use for preaching was a gift in 2000. I have a wide margin I bought in Belfast. What does that have to do with anything?
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by C4K:
I am amazed - you said God provided His word in every language - I asked you to give me 30-40 examples. You can't do it can you?
You see my clear point. I can't. You can't. TCassidy can't. No one can do that. Only God knows. Can God?
Your passage does not say God has given a translation of His word in every language on earth.
Romans 16:26 speaks of the "gospel" which was a hidden mystery in the Old Testament because this verse implies that the Scriptures made known to all nations. Look at Acts chapter 2 for example. This chapter of Acts speaks of 12 different languages during the Day of Penctecost that the people understood what these preachers preached the Gospel in their own tongues through the miracle by the Holy Spirit.

My English Bible is the Scripture because English is one of all nations. If I speak Italian, I would have the Italian Bible so the Italian Bible is the Scripture because Italy is one of all nations. The Scriptures made known to all nations -- ANYWHERE!
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Askjo, youre doing yer dangdest to avoid the obvious question...where does Scripture indicate any specific version in any language for today?

All the such-and-such version-only doctrines in English, German, and Slobbovian, to name a few, depend upon God's having pointed out certain versions in certain languages. Now, if He'd done that, it'd be documented, according to Amos 3:7, correct?

How about texts? JESUS HIMSELF shot that one down, didn't He? In Luke 4:16-21, He read from a version that did NOT match the Ben Chayyim Text used to make the KJV's OT. Dr. Cassidy proposes this was a Hebrew Vorlage Text. Whatever it was, it didn't match good ole Ben, and it was obviously familiar to the skeptical crowd to whom Jesus was reading. Sure, He had the right to change the Scriptures in His office as The Word, but evidently He didn't, at least at the that time. Had He not read verbatim to this crowd, they woulda gone ballistic.

Care to try a little SCRIPTURAL SUPPORT, Askjo?
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by Mexdeaf:
I am going to rename my dog 'KJVO'- he loves to chase his own tail too. ;)
Does he like to dig himself a hole to nowhere he can't get out of? Does he howl at the moon & wonder why it pays no attention to him? Does he try to catch cars with no thought of what he'd do with it if he DID catch one?

Does he run headlong into a clean glass patio door cuz he forgot it was there? Does he dig up old trash you thought was buried for good? Does he chase after something & suddenly run outta chain? And repeat the performance 5 minutes later? Does he snarl & bark at a bigger dog...long as there's a fence separating them? Does he dig in the garbage can every chance he gets? Does he run off when caught being naughty? Does he prove to you every day that he's not as smart as you are?

If he does several or all those things, plus s'more I mighta overlooked, then you truly have a KJVO dog.
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Mr. Correa:HELL is HOT and heaven SWEET. If you need more proof Ask yourself one thing : Do I Know ALL things? And in the Little that I do Know, can God Have Only One Book Written?

Just ask yourself: "Why can God NOT have many books written? Where is He limited?"
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Mr. Correa:Go to the link you deleted and read for yourself. About " GOD ONLY WROTE ONE BIBLE"

Can you tell us a thing about J.J.Ray the MAN? I can tell you this: Whoever Ray is (or was) he/she copied enough material, and closely enough, from Dr. Wilkinson's book that he/she coulda been charged with plagiarism had Dr. W pressed charges. I'm leaning towards JJR being a pseudonym.


God gave His Word to the Jews Not to the Korean, Japanaese, Chinese, Nigerian (any of the hundreds of tribal dialects), Afrikaans, the languages of the Indian subcontinent, etc. etc.

Actually, it was to ISRAEL, of whom the Jews are only 3 tribes.(Judah, Benjamin, Levi) And Moses was a LEVITE long before the Levites joined the Jews after Solomon's death. Before the ten tribes were made captive by the Assyrians, there was more than one prophet from other tribes.


And Like wise he Used England and the USA to spread HIs word Because English is the most popular language.

Guesswork.

Less than 1/6 the world uses English.

Why is Every country teaching the English language? So They can Be taught His WORD! and translate his word into their language

How silly.

It takes YEARS for someone not growing up using English to learn all its subtleties & nuances, let alone the slang and dealing with its over-60,000 words. A translator rendering English into Japanese often has quite a challenge with the little English word "set".


But as far as English is concerned the AV 1611 is it. and all others are REVISIONS!and not word for word from TR. thanx and have a Wonderful Easter.

Guesswork, guesswork, GUESSWORK!

The KJV does not match any of the umpteen versions of the Textus Receptus.

But may YOU have a wonderful Resurrection Day also! I mean it in all sincerity; I'm not being sarcastic!
 
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