Silly translation.

[SavedByGrace]

Same thing--the generic usage.

Seems to me that you don't really understand Greek usage!

 

[SavedByGrace]

did not find a single instance where ἀνηρ meant anything but male

but the fact that ἀνηρ IS used in the NT to include BOTH male and female, shows that you are wrong in this!

 

[John of Japan]

This is what Dr Edward Robinson says in his Greek lexicon

Inset. A man, i.e. one of the human race, a person. And gives a few Scripture references including Romans 4.8 and James 1.20

Exactly. Just what I said--the generic usage.

P. S. Robinson wrote his book in 1850--hardly what I would consider authoritative in 2020. In those days they thought classical Greek & koine were pretty much the same thing semantically. Not true.

 

[John of Japan]

Seems to me that you don't really understand Greek usage!

Seems to me that you don't understand Greek usage. I've been teaching and translating this language for over 32 years.

 

[John of Japan]

Generic means BOTH men and women. You should know that! And you are a Bible translator!

No, that is not what "generic" means. I recommend that you read the discussion on that subject by D. A. Carson in his book, The Inclusive-Language Debate. And he is on the inclusive side. Then read how Vern Poyuthress and Wayne Grudem respond in their book, The Gender-Neutral Bible Controversy. Get back with me when you have done that, and maybe I'll interact with you.

 

[John of Japan]

but the fact that ἀνηρ IS used in the NT to include BOTH male and female, shows that you are wrong in this!

Sigh. No, it is not used to include both male and female. It is used generically for human being--not the same thing semantically.

 

[SavedByGrace]

Seems to me that you don't understand Greek usage. I've been teaching and translating this language for over 32 years.

And myself over 35 years!

 

[SavedByGrace]

Sigh. No, it is not used to include both male and female. It is used generically for human being--not the same thing semantically.

Human beings means both. As does anthropos

 

[John of Japan]

And myself over 35 years!

Funny--you've never said you taught it. Where did you teach it?

And if we include studying it, I go back to 1972, and have 18 credits of grad & undergrad study. So as they used to say, "Don't teach your grandma to suck eggs."

 

[John of Japan]

Human beings means both. As does anthropos

Stubborn rascal, aren't you? Have you read Carson, Poythress, and Grudem yet?

 

[SavedByGrace]

No, that is not what "generic" means. I recommend that you read the discussion on that subject by D. A. Carson in his book, The Inclusive-Language Debate. And he is on the inclusive side. Then read how Vern Poyuthress and Wayne Grudem respond in their book, The Gender-Neutral Bible Controversy. Get back with me when you have done that, and maybe I'll interact with you.

Bible verses like Romans 4.8 and James 1.20 are where the generic is used which means general

 

[SavedByGrace]

Stubborn rascal, aren't you? Have you read Carson, Poythress, and Grudem yet?

I don't need to read them as my texts from Scripture are sufficient

 

[SavedByGrace]

Stubborn rascal, aren't you? Have you read Carson, Poythress, and Grudem yet?

Show from Romans and James where I am wrong

 

[John of Japan]

I don't need to read them as my texts from Scripture are sufficient

Oh, I see, so you are a Greek linguist based on the fact that you have not studied the Greek linguists. Got it.

 

[John of Japan]

Show from Romans and James where I am wrong

I can't do that as long as you misunderstand the concept of generic and still think you have it all figured out.. It would be a waste of me time.

See you later. I have to go to a funeral.

 

[SavedByGrace]

Funny--you've never said you taught it. Where did you teach it?

And if we include studying it, I go back to 1972, and have 18 credits of grad & undergrad study. So as they used to say, "Don't teach your grandma to suck eggs."

Proving what,? Your own arguments here show that you don't really understand Greek usage!

 

[SavedByGrace]

Exactly. Just what I said--the generic usage.

P. S. Robinson wrote his book in 1850--hardly what I would consider authoritative in 2020. In those days they thought classical Greek & koine were pretty much the same thing semantically. Not true.

Wow you think you know more than Dr Robinson? Shows that you just like to argue even when you are clearly wrong!

 

[SavedByGrace]

I disagree. I am going with standard Greek pedagogy. I checked a half dozen lexicons, and none of them had your opinion in them. Plus, I've translated the entire NT from Greek to Japanese, and many books into English, and did not find a single instance where ἀνηρ meant anything but male.

So, you prove your own unsupported theory, please.

I too will have no problem in translating the whole Greek New Testament into English or even Latin. Or the Latin NT into English or Greek!

 

[SavedByGrace]

Stubborn rascal, aren't you? Have you read Carson, Poythress, and Grudem yet?

 

[SavedByGrace]

I can't do that as long as you misunderstand the concept of generic and still think you have it all figured out.. It would be a waste of me time.

See you later. I have to go to a funeral.

Male Meaning in Generic Masculines in Koine Greek

See the conclusion