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Silly translation.

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Oh, I see, so you are a Greek linguist based on the fact that you have not studied the Greek linguists. Got it. :Geek

You think you know it all because you translated a Japanese Bible. What a joke!

I won't be wasting my time responding to you as I have better things to do
 

John of Japan

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Proving what,? Your own arguments here show that you don't really understand Greek usage!
Well, tell you what. The funeral is over. I'll try one last time to make you understand "generic" usage. If you don't get it this time I'll have to conclude that (how can I put it gently?) you are content with your misunderstanding. :Biggrin

For a word to be used in a generic sense means that it is non-specific. That is, it is not referring to anything specific. You think ἀνηρ is somehow referring to women in a generic usage. But generic usage means that it is not referring to either male or female, but "person" in a non-specific way.

If you don't believe me (you obviously think I am incompetent in Greek linguistics), let's try a linguistic dictionary. "generic (Expression, etc.) referring to an entire class of individuals, events, etc., rather than to specific members.... A word like man is said to have a 'generic use' in reference to any human being, rather than male human beings in particular. Hence 'male generic' or 'generic masculine..." (P. H. Matthews, Oxford Concise Dictionary of Linguistics, p. 156).

If this doesn't enter your skull and produce understanding, I can't help you. Just go ahead and keep insulting--I won't be here.
 

John of Japan

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
You think you know it all because you translated a Japanese Bible. What a joke!

I won't be wasting my time responding to you as I have better things to do
Wow, I haven't been called a "know-it-all" since I was a kid. :Laugh Gave me a good laugh. Thanks!
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
I can't do that as long as you misunderstand the concept of generic and still think you have it all figured out.. It would be a waste of me time.

See you later. I have to go to a funeral.

just one question that requires a yes or no answer. does the use of "ἀνὴρ" in Romans 4:8, and James 1:20, include both male and female?
 

John of Japan

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
usual cop-out when you are wrong!
Another good laugh. Thank you! :D You are entertaining when you insult, though I don't think you mean to be. If you are trying to hurt my feelings, it's not working. Keep up the insults, because "laughter doeth good like a medicine."
 
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SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Another good laugh. Thank you! :D You are entertaining when you insult, though I don't think you mean to be. If you are trying to hurt my feelings, it's not working. Keep up the insults, because "laughter doeth good like a medicine."

I am not insulting you but have a few times asked a very simple question which you avoid to answer and instead ask me to read various books!
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Another good laugh. Thank you! :D You are entertaining when you insult, though I don't think you mean to be. If you are trying to hurt my feelings, it's not working. Keep up the insults, because "laughter doeth good like a medicine."

One more time. Respond to Romans 4.8 and James 1.20
 

John of Japan

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I am not insulting you but have a few times asked a very simple question which you avoid to answer and instead ask me to read various books!
Oh give me a break. #57. Pay attention! (And yes, you insulting. You don't even know it?)

You were incredibly rude to Ziggy on another thread. And I guarantee you, he has forgotten more about the subject that thread was about than you know. I know him in person.
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Oh give me a break. #57. Pay attention! (And yes, you insulting. You don't even know it?)

You were incredibly rude to Ziggy on another thread. And I guarantee you, he has forgotten more about the subject that thread was about than you know. I know him in person.

Fine. It's best that we never again comment on the others remarks. It is bye from me. I have no time for the likes of you
 

Ziggy

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
See the conclusion


The conclusion: "This evidence favors the conclusion that use of masculine singular in English provides an *appropriate* match in meaning. *Ideology*, however, still puts pressure on translators not to allow such meanings in English."
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
The conclusion: "This evidence favors the conclusion that use of masculine singular in English provides an *appropriate* match in meaning. *Ideology*, however, still puts pressure on translators not to allow such meanings in English."

But as I have already shown, Romans 4.8 and James 1.20 are examples where the word is used for both male and female. If not then show otherwise
 
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