Proving what,? Your own arguments here show that you don't really understand Greek usage!
Well, tell you what. The funeral is over. I'll try one last time to make you understand "generic" usage. If you don't get it this time I'll have to conclude that (how can I put it gently?) you are content with your misunderstanding.
For a word to be used in a generic sense means that it is non-specific. That is, it is not referring to anything specific. You think ἀνηρ is somehow referring to women in a generic usage. But generic usage means that it is not referring to either male or female, but "person" in a non-specific way.
If you don't believe me (you obviously think I am incompetent in Greek linguistics), let's try a linguistic dictionary. "
generic (Expression, etc.) referring to an entire class of individuals, events, etc., rather than to specific members.... A word like
man is said to have a 'generic use' in reference to any human being, rather than male human beings in particular. Hence 'male generic' or 'generic masculine..." (P. H. Matthews,
Oxford Concise Dictionary of Linguistics, p. 156).
If this doesn't enter your skull and produce understanding, I can't help you. Just go ahead and keep insulting--I won't be here.