Originally posted by D28guy:
"Speaking in tongues is no guarantee of salvation, and is not an evidence of salvation."
[qb]
If it is the legitimate gift of the Holy Spirit it is both a guarantee and evidence of salvation. If it is a counterfiet tongues than I agree with you.
There is no such thing as "legitimate" speaking of tongues for today. The gift ceased in the first century. Consequently what goes on today in the name of tongues is bogus--all of it.
"You are not God, and cannot tell who is saved and who is not."
...why are you turning around and declaring that some of those who speak in tongues are demon possesed?
You only quoted me in part, taking what I said out of context. Indeed some people who do speak in tongues speak in tongues as a result of being demon possessed of the devil. That is why I asked or made the statement that you cannot know for sure who is not saved and who is. If those that are Hindus, Voodoo-worshipers, etc. speak in tongues as a result of demon-possession (and they do), then it is very probable that some of your "unsaved" members do the same. Others may speak in tongues, having been oppressed by the devil. It is not a gift of the Holy Spirit.
I said...
"And along with that, we find the biblically identified gifts of the Spirit...all of them...in evidence." And you said...
Never seen that evidence yet.
You've never even visited a fellowship with the sign gifts in evidence? Then why dont you visit some of these pentecostal and charismatic fellowships sometime. I believe you will be genuinely blessed if you do.
I am so surprised at the Charismatics on here that presume to know all about my life. If you haven't noticed yet I call them false prophets. Yes, I have been to Charismatic Churches.
Yes, I have seen people speak in the modern day gibberish. (never in Biblical tongues)
You don't even listen to the countless of former Charismatics that voice their testimonies on this board anyway, why should mine make any difference?

What I have seen is not of God at all. As I suspected all along it is carnal, of the flesh, and possibly influenced directly by Satan himself.
You said that theology should be based on the word of God.
Absolutely. It was a Charismatic leader on TBN that prayed: "Oh Lord may we dispense with doctrine." He was sacrificing doctrine on the altar of unity. Charismatics have no choice but to do away with doctrine because the Charismatic movement (pushing ahead the ecumenical movement) transcends so many different denominations--all havinng different denominations. So which ones are you willing to give up for the sake of unity?
I said...
"Thats my whole point!
The scriptures identify certain gifts of the Spirit. They are individually identified and described. In the Charismatic and Pentecostal meetings we see them in evidence.
In more "traditional" churchs, people go to great and convoluted lengths to explain them away."
They are not evidenced. I have shown that to you quite clearly. And you refuse to believe the evidence that I give to you. I will present some of it again:
1. Acts 5:16--The gift of healing. No one has the Biblical gift of healing as demonstrated in this verse, where ALL that came out of ALL the cities round about Jerusalem were Healed ALL of therm; EVERYONE.
No so-called faith healer would dare walk into a hospital and go up and down the corridors and heal all that are in a hospital where the sick are because he can't. The gift of healing has ceased. If it hasn't this would be readily seen in our society as it was in the first century, but it isn't.
2. If the gift of tongues was given today as it was in the first century missionaries would not have to study to go to foreign mission fields. But they do, even the Charismatic ones. That in itself proves it to be wrong. I could exegete the entire chapter of 1Cor.14 and show you how it is wrong, but to keep it brief, that point alone shows you it is not for today. The gift has ceased, because it is evidently not in use today. God is not giving the gift of speaking in foreign languages commonly to believers today. It is not a gift any longer to the local churches. It doesn't happen. It is obvious.
3. Along with that gift the gift of interpretation is no longer in practice.
4. Neither do we see the Biblical gifts of prophecy or the word of knowledge unless you are willing to count people in like Mary Eddy Baker, and Joseph Smith, even Mohammed.
The gifts are obviously not for today.
But you don't listen to evidence do you?
Perhaps they are not explained away but solid Biblical evidence is given to show that they have ceased.
[qb]
I have yet to see any of this "solid biblical evidence" you speak of. All I have seen is a lot of "twist"..."mangle"..."distort"...etc.
You will have to be more honest with yourself. Who does the twisting and perverting of Scripturre??
"But, as I have posted above, that evidence is ignored, and goes unrefuted.
The biblical "evidence" that is being ignored and unrefuted is our evidence. The "biblical evidence" on your side doesnt exist. It is biblical "scripture twisting".
I have twisted nothing, and I doubt if you can point to any verse which I have done so. Where is your proof?
Give credible evidence that the general phenomena of the Charismatic phenomena of today is what was happening in the Bible.
Its been done more times than I can count, by myself and many others, on these 3+ volumes of this topic.
And yet you can't come up with a solid valid Biblical argument why tongues are for today, when the Bible specifically says they have ceased. They were a sign. The sign has been taken out of the way.
"I haven't seen any that is Biblical yet."
I know you havent. And its been shown over and over and over again. Its a shame you havent "seen" it yet.
Because you haven't given it. Experience is not evidence. Anecdotal "evidence" doesn't count for much. You have no Scriptural proof.
"We base theology on the Word of God, not experience."
I wish that were true, regarding your side.
That is about all that I have presented to you. In the course of these pages I have expounded the entire chapter of 1Cor.14; 1Cor.13:8-13; 1Cor.12:1-4; 12-28-31; 13:1-3, among many other Scriptures. In return I have gotten rationalization, and experience.
The evidence that I keep hearing is "I spoke in tongues therefore it is of God." My answer to that is: "Phooey!"
I know thats your answer. But regarding the 1st part of that statement, you have been given much more evidence that than. You have been given reams and reams of biblical evidence.
Then where is it? I would like to see it--in its proper context.
I'll tackle the rest of you're post later, the Lord willing.
DHK