saturneptune
New Member
1) I believe the statement is completely true, therefore your effort at mindreading is specious.
2) According to Calvinism God choose some for salvation and left the rest unsaved before anyone had sinned. Thus according to Calvinism the unsaved were damned from all eternity.
3) Did I say put human volition into Ephesians 2:5, or did I say it does not depend on the man that wills but upon God who has mercy, and therefore God alone puts those of His choosing in Christ where they are made alive. Why do you continue to misrepresent my view??
4) I did not rip John 6:29 out of context, my view is in accordance with the context, Jesus was asked what we must do, referring to what men must do, and Jesus answered believe in Me. Thus the subjective genitive, is translated ambiguously by the NASB, but accurately and the same verse is translated unambiguously and accurately in the NET which reads the deeds (work) God requires. Your debate is with Dr. Dan Wallace, not with me.
5) While in the past, the rule of thumb for translating genitives is to put "of" + the genitive, is still used today, many translations are using a better understanding of the Greek to present God's word with the clarity intended.
6) Why not try addressing my actual view, rather than strawmen of your own construction. Why are you hiding the truth with obfuscation?
Bottom line, there is no actual support for the first four points of Calvinism anywhere in scripture. None, Zip Nada. Instead, the man-made doctrines turn the gospel into the doctrines of futility.
What makes you avoid a question that has been asked several times of you. I will restate it for you. What makes you think that God is obligated to transfer 100% knowledge to you of His inner workings for the doctrine to be legitimate?