The Absolute Equality of Jesus and The Father

[37818]

There is only ONE Being God, Who is Three Persons. Jesus calls the Father "God", because He IS "Yahweh". the Father calls Jesus "God", because He IS "Yahweh". No one is saying that there are two Gods, or God/god! The ABSOLUTE EQULATLY of The Three Persons does not mean "Three Gods", nor does it mean ANY "subordination" in the Godhead with the Three Persons. They are ETERANALLY COEQUAL. The Bible fact that The Three Persons are YHWH, is conclusive in itself that there can NEVER be any "subordination", except for the duration of Jesus' Incarnate years on earth. Even then, as Almighty God, He was COEQUAL with the Father!

No one here is accusing you of there being two Gods.

They as the one and the same YHWH and as such are absolutely one and the same God.

But the Son is subordinate to the Father, which you seem to explicity deny.

 

[37818]

New 37818, what is "funny" about my reply?

See my Post #101.

 

[SavedByGrace]

They as the one and the same YHWH and as such are absolutely one and the same God.

Your language here is that of Unitarianism, and not Trinitarianism, which is what the Holy Bible teaches. The Bible NO WHERE teaches that the Father and Son are "one and the same YHWH". Can you show me where it does? The TWO Persons are "One and the same God", as in the Godhead, but DISTINCT Persons. You need to clarify your language here.

 

[37818]

Your language here is that of Unitarianism, and not Trinitarianism, which is what the Holy Bible teaches. The Bible NO WHERE teaches that the Father and Son are "one and the same YHWH". Can you show me where it does? The TWO Persons are "One and the same God", as in the Godhead, but DISTINCT Persons. You need to clarify your language here.

You are desparate to find fault.
Yes, there are three distinct Persons who as God are the one and the same God. The subordination of the Son existed prior to His incarnation, John 1:2 and will contiune into the Son's eternal kingdom in the New Heaven and Earth, 1 Corinthians 15:28. See Revelation 20:14 with 1 Corinthians 15:26-28.

 

[SavedByGrace]

The subordination of the Son existed prior to His incarnation, John 1:2 and will contiune into the Son's eternal kingdom in the New Heaven and Earth, 1 Corinthians 15:28. See Revelation 20:14 with 1 Corinthians 15:26-28.

RANK HERESY!

 

[37818]

RANK HERESY!

You are desperate.
What do you understand John 1:2 to mean?
What do you understand 1 Corinthians 15:28 to mean given its context 1 Corinthians 15:26-28?

 

[SavedByGrace]

You are desperate.
What do you understand John 1:2 to mean?
What do you understand 1 Corinthians 15:28 to mean given its context 1 Corinthians 15:26-28?

John 1:2, reads, "The same was in the beginning with God", which is emphasizing what has been said in verse 1

1 Corinthians 15:26-28 has to do with the Meditorial Rule of Jesus Christ, which ENDS at the Second Coming

 

[Scripture More Accurately]

you are speaking complete nonsense! You call yourself "Scripture More Accurately", and don't really understand what you say! So, by your own logic (illogic), when God the Father very clearly calls Jesus Christ "GOD", as He does in Hebrews 1:8, then God the Father must "worship" the Lord Jesus Christ? Your reasoning is MOOT! I have no further time for this, as clearly you are out of your depth here! Start your own thread on your conjectures!

This is a telling response of one who cannot account fully for all that Scripture says.

In keeping with the nature of your response and because it is your thread, I will refrain from engaging with you further on this subject.

 

[37818]

John 1:2, reads, "The same was in the beginning with God", which is emphasizing what has been said in verse 1

Which is true. But that does not explain what it means for the Word to be "with God." That very phrase is used of 17 other places in Scripture. And they are not God too.

1 Corinthians 15:26-28 has to do with the Meditorial Rule of Jesus Christ, which ENDS at the Second Coming

How? v,26 does not take place until Revelation 20:14.

 

[SavedByGrace]

Which is true. But that does not explain what it means for the Word to be "with God." That very phrase is used of 17 other places in Scripture. And they are not God too.
How? v,26 does not take place until Revelation 20:14.

are you saying that because "the Word", Who is Jesus Christ, is "with" God the Father, that makes Him not God?

 

[MB]

Which is true. But that does not explain what it means for the Word to be "with God." That very phrase is used of 17 other places in Scripture. And they are not God too.
How? v,26 does not take place until Revelation 20:14.

You just denied that the Word is God. You are beginning to seem more like Jehovah's witness's they argue the same thing. Are you a J W
By the way Jn 1:1 starts off with "in the beginning".
MB

 

[MB]

I don't see what this has got to do with the OP???

It has to do with questions raised in conversation about the equality of Jesus and the Father. They cannot be one God if they aren't equal because He would be in contradiction with Him Self. Each post on any thread has the potential to take the thread else where because of misunderstandings. This is just the way that it is.
MB

 

[37818]

are you saying that because "the Word", Who is Jesus Christ, is "with" God the Father, that makes Him not God?

Pay close attention. Yes and no. The Word was always both. Notice as the Word was also God, as God is also never subordinate. Never. But as not God was always subordinate. Again the Word was always both. The Word being was God never changes. As with God is whom by which God does all things. The Word does all things for God as God. John 1:3. Ephesians 3:9. John 5:19. John 14:6.

 

[37818]

You just denied that the Word is God. You are beginning to seem more like Jehovah's witness's they argue the same thing. Are you a J W
By the way Jn 1:1 starts off with "in the beginning".
MB

You are not hearing what I am actually arguing. I am not denying that the Word was God. I am, yes, afirming the Word was also not God. That is not the same as denying the Word was God. I have never done that. What I am afirming is the Word as "was God" never changed.

 

[MB]

You are not hearing what I am actually arguing. I am not denying that the Word was God. I am, yes, afirming the Word was also not God. That is not the same as denying the Word was God. I have never done that. What I am afirming is the Word as "was God" never changed.

God Him self never changes but He has changed His mind. The proof of this is the fact when I first believed He saved me. This is clearly a change of mind on what to do with me. Salvation is not predetermined, because with out choice man cannot truly Love God.

I am not Arminian and you are, why do you expect agrreement.
MB

 

[MB]

Which is true. But that does not explain what it means for the Word to be "with God." That very phrase is used of 17 other places in Scripture. And they are not God too.
How? v,26 does not take place until Revelation 20:14.

As simple as it can be said The Word was both with and was God. Read it carefully.
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God;
MB

 

[MB]

You assert that these passages in Revelation prove as completely wrong that there is any subordination with Jesus to the Father after the Incarnation.

More than any other book of the Bible, however, Revelation stresses that God the Father continues to be the God of the glorified God-Man, Jesus of Nazareth:

Revelation 3:12 Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name.

In this statement, the glorified Jesus Himself is the One who emphatically declares 4x that the Father is His God.

It hardly seems that your OP accounts for what Jesus Himself stresses in this statement. If you believe that this is not an explicit statement of some kind of subordination of the God-Man, Jesus of Nazareth, to the Father after the Incarnation, how do you explain that what this statement teaches is not evidence of any such subordination?

Do you believe that Jesus is God? so is the Spirit. All three are one God. If you believe this is so then God is His own God simply because there is no other. Christ was subordinate while here on Earth because he had to step down temporarily to become a man All three agree with each other which makes them one God.
MB

 

[37818]

I am not Arminian and you are, . . .

I am not an Arminian nor Calvinist in my view point. Stop with your false opinions of others. It is one thing to disagree. But false accusations are not tenable.

God Him self never changes but He has changed His mind. The proof of this is the fact when I first believed He saved me. This is clearly a change of mind on what to do with me. Salvation is not predetermined, because with out choice man cannot truly Love God.

God does not change. And that is not at issue. God chnages how He will deal with peoples when they change. God otherwise does not change His mind being omniscient. But the Son on His behalf does, John 1:18, Genesis 22:12, ". . . now I know . . ." God says to Abram by way of His Son, John 1:18.

 

[37818]

As simple as it can be said The Word was both with and was God. Read it carefully.
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God;
MB

Which is my point of view.

 

[MB]

Which is my point of view.

Then your grammar was in bad form. Mine is terrible I should have listen to the teacher but I was only interested in a girl.
MB