My point was that God did used the gift of tongues given to the Gentiles and Samaritans that they were also saved Jesus, as the Jews could not refute that evidence!
And my point, which again you ignored, is that when Peter spoke to the Jews about Gentile Inclusion...tongues is not mentioned.
What that means, Yeshua1, is that tongues are irrelevant to the actual salvation which took place, and we see that salvation takes place...
...when men are Baptized with the Holy Ghost.
This is the process through which God places the believer in Himself, and that is the same as being indwelt. You don't have the one without the other. Or more properly, you don't have the One without the Other, lol.
And God can still use the gift of tongues if He needs to even today out on the Mission field,
I have heard evidence that He does. I haven't seen it, though, so I remain open to the possibility that these accounts are genuine.
its just that they will be actual languages he gives the missionaries to proclaim the message of Jesus to them,
This is true, but, irrelevant to the OP.
not the See my tie really fast many charismatics trained to say!
Again, I agree, but again, irrelevant to the OP, which is a far more important topic to understand than the gift of tongues, which, if it is still in use (such as in Missionary efforts), is random from the accounts I have heard of.
Secondly, we would not view God doing this miracle as a giving of the gift, because the giving of the gift would have the individual doing it more than once, and those I have heard about have only ever spoken of one account of this happening.
God bless.