Do you tell us which of the varying renderings in the Bible Babble Buffet of many varying editions of the KJV are the ones God inspired in His book?
Inspiration doesn't always travel in the same set of tracks.
When God Spoke the Inspired Sixth Commandment to not kill, 1.) He Wrote it on tablets of stone in some lettering, 2.) then the Hebrew with consonants might look like 3.);
֖ א תִּֿרְצָֽ֖ח׃ ס, then in our King James Bible, Exodus 20:13 reads, "
Thou shalt not kill", 4.) which in French could be, "Tu ne tueras point" and 5.) I could holler out my front door, "Don't Murder!!"
I will contend that 1.) - 5.) are equally Inspired, as the Words of God, about which Jesus said,
"the Words that I Speak unto you, they are Spirit, and they are Life", in John 6:63,
where we know God's Promise is TRUE and will always be FULFILLED,
"So shall My Word be that Goeth Forth out of My Mouth: it shall not return unto Me void, but it shall Accomplish that which I Please, and it shall Prosper in the thing whereto I Sent it." Isaiah 55:11.
It's simply a matter of a comprehensive comparison of all available original language manuscripts, along with all other sources of reputable translations and holding to the Bible Doctrines of the Inspiration and Preservation of the Scriptures.
"All Scripture is Given by Inspiration of God, and is Profitable for Doctrine, for Reproof, for Correction, for Instruction in Righteousness:" II Timothy 3:16.
How did Jesus know that the Words He was Speaking would be written down and Preserved for us to read them, as well as, for them to be Preserved for us to be Judged by them, when He said,
"He that rejecteth Me, and receiveth not My Words, hath one that Judgeth him: the Word that I have Spoken, the same shall Judge him in the Last Day", in
John 12:48?
Because, Jesus is God and He has the Capability and Power to Do just what He said He would.
And, He has.
Anyone who knows you knows that you simply do not believe there is now or ever was such a thing as a complete and 100% true words of God Bible you can show us.
How is the KJV a complete English Bible translation in that it does not give an English word/rendering for each and every original-language word of Scripture in its underlying texts?
NO translation I am aware of, including the KJB, is always a word for word translation.
NO translation of anything ever was word-for-word and none ever intended to be. It's not in the cards, in the nature of translation, from one language to another.
If you're going to be looking for something of that nature, the place to begin would be in Isaiah 14:12, where the Hebrew term "helel ben shachar" is translated as "day star" or "morning star", in most every 'modern' translation, when the Hebrew words "helel ben shachar", which translates to “shining one, son of the dawn”, don't have any meaning word-for-word, or otherwise, that could include translating them with the English words "morning", or "star".
Who wanted them written in there?
"love one another as I loved you."
I am King James preferred, unless another actual Revision, or New, version comes about, if ever needed, some day (I am not KJVO, as professed by those who hold to the various tenants of Ruckmanism, which I find to be indefensible. For one example, from
https://confessionalbibliology.com/...inspiration-of-the-king-james-version-part-1/, "He asserts that the translation itself (KJB) not only faithfully reproduces the original autographs but also surpasses them. Ruckman writes, “The AV 1611 English corrects the errors in the Greek manuscripts. It is the final revelation of God’s words to man” (
The Scholarship Only Controversy, p. 78). Also, see
What About Peter Ruckman?)
the KJB defended as God's complete and inerrant Bible
When there is nothing needed to be added, or to be subtracted, for it to be True, it is an Inerrant translation. We just need to find the one(s) that God has Persevered for us, the Way He Promised He would.
The idea that A.) we didn't at one time, B.) or don't now, have GOD'S WORD IN IT'S ENTIRETY, or that C.) we believe God's Word is contained within the whole collection of Preserved manuscripts, but that D.) we don't know, or E.) *can't know exactly where, are all Ludacris, A.)-E.),
*where adherents of the
Alexandrian text-type underlying most modern New Testament versions say there is "no final, absolute written authority of God anywhere on this earth". From
The "Creed of the Alexandrian Cult".
Second thing. Since you deny the inerrancy of the KJB how about you give me your Number One example of a provable error found in the KJB and we can take a look at it to see if you are right or not, OK? Not the usual laundry list you got from the internet, but just your # 1 best example.
IF NO PROVABLE ERROR can be determined to be genuinely and verifiably incorrect, then that translation version will fall under a nuance in the definition of 'perfect'.
This 'Second thing' Test seems to be where we're at, whether with the King James Bible, or other(s).
