Brother Bob said:
2Ti 3:16All scripture [is] given by inspiration of God, and [is] profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
Matt 5;
32: But I say unto you, That whosoever
shall put away his wife,
saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
You seem to place more emphasis on your authority, than that of the Lord.
Maybe they meant the marriage was "dead"????
BBob,
Bob, I have lived my half century in this life, and you are probably are much older than I. I have never questioned the meaning of adultery both in my saved life, and in my unsaved life. Adultery has always meant unfaithfulness to one's spouse. That is the meaning of the word in any language.
Likewise I grew up knowing the word fornication. It was not a foreign word to me. As Adultery meant unfaithful to one's wife, or put another way: illicit sex after marriage; fornication was the opposite--illicit sex before marriage. That is the
primary meaning of the word, as any dictionary will tell you. Yes, it does encompass some other lesser meanings. But the primary meaning is illicit sex before marriage.
Matthew 5:32 is the only verse where "except for fornication" is used. The context is often ignored here. Let me give it to you.
First the greater context. The Gospel of Matthew was written to Jews presenting Christ as the Messiah, the King of the Jews. There are more OT references in Matthew than in any other Gospel. It seeks to prove that Jesus was the Son of David, the righful heir to the throne of David; the Messiah. It was written to a Jewish audience.
Keeping that in mind, for the Jews especially, fornication meant illicit sex before marriage. We can easily see that in Matthew chapter one, in the life of Mary and Joseph. Joseph was about to "divorce" his "wife to be" Mary. They were betrothed, not married, and yet they called each other husband and wife. That is how tight the marriage contract was at that time. That marriage contract could be broken if fornication (sex before marriage) was found to be true in the wife. This is what happened (or what Joseph supposed) in the life of Mary. She was pregnant. He was going to divorce her, for the cause of fornication, even though they were only betrothed. If it were not for the intervention of the angel, Joseph would have gone ahead with the divorce. It would have been for the cause of fornication--sex before marriage.
That is where Mat.5:32 fits in. The only way it would apply in our society is if in a relationship when a couple is engaged and ready to be married, one of them is found to be unfaithful, then perhaps they should break off the engagement, and think twice about being married. That is the application of that verse today.