Give two examples of inaccurate renderings in new translations.
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The flaws of the KVJ
- Thread starter agedman
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Give two examples of inaccurate renderings in new translations.
They do not knowingly put errors in their Bible translations. There is more than one way to translate many original-language words, phrases, and clauses, and different original-language scholars have differences in which way that they consider to be the most accurate rendering for the different contexts.
Everyone does not agree on what is a mistake and what is not a mistake in a Bible translation, and everyone does not agree concerning which is the more accurate rendering.
Incorrect assumption and reasoning on your part. He does not list or publisher every inaccurate rendering in the KJV. I do not recall that he claims to list every one of them. He gives a few examples, and not everyone agrees with his examples.
You fail to demonstrate that there is a way to have perfect Bible translations. Your reasoning is faulty and flawed. Not everyone agrees concerning how to translate most accurately original-language words of Scripture.
William Tyndale did not knowingly put goofs or errors in his 1526 edition of his New Testament. He learned more later and others may have pointed out some inaccurate renderings to him so that William Tyndale himself made hundreds and even thousands of revisions, corrections, or attempted improvements in his 1534 edition of his New Testament. Thus, even the same person may later disagree with how he earlier translated something as is clearly seen in the case of William Tyndale who is known as the father of our English Bible.
In their dedication to King James in the 1611, the KJV translators referred to the earlier English Bibles such as the 1560 Geneva Bible and the 1568 Bishops' Bible as "exact" translations, and yet they made hundreds and thousands of revisions and changes to the pre-1611 word of God in English. In their dedication, it is asserted that "out of the original sacred tongues, together with comparing of the labours, both in our own and other foreign languages, of many worthy men who went before us, there should be one more exact translation of the holy Scriptures into the English tongue." The KJV was to be one more like the Geneva Bible and the Bishops' Bible.
In their preface to the 1611, the KJV translators indicated that there was no way to have perfect Bible translations without a miracle of direct inspiration of God or unless they were made by the process of direct inspiration from God. You are contradicting the KJV translators who are supposedly wiser than you. The Scriptures do not teach that the process of giving of Scripture by direct divine inspiration continued after the giving of the New Testament by inspiration.
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You hit the head on the nail. 'Tis a prob of poor rendering, as it appears God is addressing only Moses. We billhillies solve that prob by saying "Y'all" when referring to plural persons.
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