The Kjv is better, as are the Nkjv/Nasb, due to mainly their formal translation theory!I prefer the 84.
But I prefer the KJV over that. Both have their uses.
God bless.
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The Kjv is better, as are the Nkjv/Nasb, due to mainly their formal translation theory!I prefer the 84.
But I prefer the KJV over that. Both have their uses.
God bless.
The Kjv is better, as are the Nkjv/Nasb, due to mainly their formal translation theory!
You won't embarrass me. It's all there is the public domain anyway. But you might like to consider what the Bible has to say about motes and beams.If you want me to embarrass you with all of the nasty things you have said of the NIV --translators and readers alike --being under your scorn -- that can be arranged.
You are studiously avoiding interacting with my point. Whether or not Carson is right in what he says, one of the great principles of the Baptists is the right of private interpretation. When a translation alters the inspired word by changing singulars into plurals, a lot of the time it doesn't matter all that much except that it shouldn't happen. But sometimes it takes away the liberty of the reader to find Christ in a given passage. I cited Hebrews 2:5-9 and Psalm 24. Whether Carson or anyone else thinks Christ is not to be found there is beside the point. By changing the Holy Spirit's words from singular to plural the translators are taking away the readers' liberty to find Christ there. Oops! There's another nasty thing I've said about the NIV translators. Make sure you put it in your list.It exactly hits the point. You have studiously avoided interacting with what he said.
Regardless if Dr Carson or other learned men see Jesus in those passages, since jesus DID see Himself in those OT passages as being THE Son of man! Think that His understanding on this trumps theirsYou won't embarrass me. It's all there is the public domain anyway. But you might like to consider what the Bible has to say about motes and beams.
You are studiously avoiding interacting with my point. Whether or not Carson is right in what he says, one of the great principles of the Baptists is the right of private interpretation. When a translation alters the inspired word by changing singulars into plurals, a lot of the time it doesn't matter all that much except that it shouldn't happen. But sometimes it takes away the liberty of the reader to find Christ in a given passage. I cited Hebrews 2:5-9 and Psalm 24. Whether Carson or anyone else thinks Christ is not to be found there is beside the point. By changing the Holy Spirit's words from singular to plural the translators are taking away the readers' liberty to find Christ there. Oops! There's another nasty thing I've said about the NIV translators. Make sure you put it in your list.
Carson says that 75% of the commentators do not believe that 'son of man' in Hebrews 2:6 has any reference to the Lord Jesus. I wonder how he researched that figure, but let it pass. I will observe that the Puritans John Owen and Thomas Goodwin appear to find Him there. 'Competent theologians' indeed! You mentioned Spurgeon's well-known comment about finding Christ where He is not legitimately to be found. Well, in The Treasury of David, when commenting on Psalm 8, he gives an extended quote by Goodwin on the connection between the Psalm and Heb. 2, which finds Christ in both.
Just as a thought inspired by Goodwin:
Psalm 8:6. 'You have made him to have dominion over the works of Your hands; You have put all things under his feet.'
Ephesians 1:22. And He put all things under His feet, and gave Him to be head over all things to the church.'
So when the NIV 2011 translates in Hebrews 2:8, 'You have put all things under their feet,' how can it be denied that it is obscuring a possible reference to the Lord Jesus Christ?
'And beginning at Moses and all the prophets, He expounded to them in all the Scriptures the things concerning Himself' (Luke 24:27). That must have been some Bible study! Wouldn't you love to have been there?
I bet He mentioned Psalm 8.
rs on the Nasb/Nkjv also were very sound in their theology!Well, if you ask me, John 1:18 is much more easily understood in the 84 NIV than the KJV, as are numerous other verses as well. But, we all know a translation is going to "tell on" the translator's Theology, and it is just my opinion that the Translators of the KJV were some pretty sound fellows.
As a matter of fact, if you have not read it, I highly recommend the Original Preface of the KJV.
Some great preaching in there.
God bless.
it's great to see the CSB passing the Hebrews 2:8 testYou won't embarrass me. It's all there is the public domain anyway. But you might like to consider what the Bible has to say about motes and beams.
You are studiously avoiding interacting with my point. Whether or not Carson is right in what he says, one of the great principles of the Baptists is the right of private interpretation. When a translation alters the inspired word by changing singulars into plurals, a lot of the time it doesn't matter all that much except that it shouldn't happen. But sometimes it takes away the liberty of the reader to find Christ in a given passage. I cited Hebrews 2:5-9 and Psalm 24. Whether Carson or anyone else thinks Christ is not to be found there is beside the point. By changing the Holy Spirit's words from singular to plural the translators are taking away the readers' liberty to find Christ there. Oops! There's another nasty thing I've said about the NIV translators. Make sure you put it in your list.
Carson says that 75% of the commentators do not believe that 'son of man' in Hebrews 2:6 has any reference to the Lord Jesus. I wonder how he researched that figure, but let it pass. I will observe that the Puritans John Owen and Thomas Goodwin appear to find Him there. 'Competent theologians' indeed! You mentioned Spurgeon's well-known comment about finding Christ where He is not legitimately to be found. Well, in The Treasury of David, when commenting on Psalm 8, he gives an extended quote by Goodwin on the connection between the Psalm and Heb. 2, which finds Christ in both.
Just as a thought inspired by Goodwin:
Psalm 8:6. 'You have made him to have dominion over the works of Your hands; You have put all things under his feet.'
Ephesians 1:22. And He put all things under His feet, and gave Him to be head over all things to the church.'
So when the NIV 2011 translates in Hebrews 2:8, 'You have put all things under their feet,' how can it be denied that it is obscuring a possible reference to the Lord Jesus Christ?
'And beginning at Moses and all the prophets, He expounded to them in all the Scriptures the things concerning Himself' (Luke 24:27). That must have been some Bible study! Wouldn't you love to have been there?
I bet He mentioned Psalm 8.
You are quite heavy-handed with your terminology --“alter the inspired Word” is a case in point.When a translation alters the inspired word by changing singulars into plurals, a lot of the time it doesn't matter all that much except that it shouldn't happen.
Of his 40 commentaries on the book of Hebrews he looked up the passage and noted that more than 30 of them had no reference to Jesus. What's so hard to figure out?Carson says that 75% of the commentators do not believe that 'son of man' in Hebrews 2:6 has any reference to the Lord Jesus. I wonder how he researched that figure, but let it pass.
It's not a good policy when translating to put possibilities in the text.So when the NIV 2011 translates in Hebrews 2:8, 'You have put all things under their feet,' how can it be denied that it is obscuring a possible reference to the Lord Jesus Christ?
The NIV 2011 editionYou are quite heavy-handed with your terminology --“alter the inspired Word” is a case in point.
Then you admitted that "a lot of the time it doesn't matter that much." So what's the point you are trying to make anyway?
Of his 40 commentaries on the book of Hebrews he looked up the passage and noted that more than 30 of them had no reference to Jesus. What's so hard to figure out?
You need to clarify things. Were you and the preacher visiting another church?Our preacher last night had prepared Psalm 1 from the old NIV, & found the church was using the new NIV - shown on the overhead as well as pew Bibles.
A choice quote:As a matter of fact, if you have not read it, I highly recommend the Original Preface of the KJV.
I thought that I did, was What is the New International Version (NIV)?Y-1, you need to cite the source of the quote. That is, unless you want people to think you actually penned the above. But you can't get away with that.
Why do you consider the first Psalm Messianic?By making the language inclusive, the Messianic thrust of the Psalm is lost.
You are not making any sense. Who wrote what you quoted? You need to identify the author, it's the decent thing to do.I thought that I did, was What is the New International Version (NIV)?
So? What is the big deal? If you think "the man" means a certain male you have some problems.
I've just checked Psalm 15 & find "the man" becomes "the one" & in the last verse, "he" becomes "whoever."
You have't been paying attention. I have corrected MM's mistaken belive regaring the use of the singular they, them and their. Those words have a fine pedigree in the English language. It is incorrect for you to say the usage is incorrect.And in v. 4b, the new has
"who keeps an oath even when it hurts,
and does not change their mind;"
which is wrong grammar - "who" is singular, & "their" is plural. Incorrect English to make it politically correct.
No author cited = no authority.I thought that I did, was What is the New International Version (NIV)?
At the Gotquestions web site!
Do you really not understand???? It is not a question of putting possibilities into the text, but taking them out.It's not a good policy when translating to put possibilities in the text.
Don't you understand? If the translators, based on their deliberate study of the context, do not believe there is a reference to Christ --why put in the text? Since 75% of conservative Old Testament scholars believe there is nothing Messianic there --then it should not be placed there.Do you really not understand???? It is not a question of putting possibilities into the text, but taking them out.
You are confused. We never dealt with Ps. 23. And as for Heb. 2 -- verse 9 in the NIV is as clear as the NKJV :I am not insisting that everyone has to agree that Psalm 23 and Hebrews 2:5-9 refer to Christ;