Why?
It is not “EXACTLY OPPOSITE” of what 2 Corinthians 5:21 says, in fact that is EXACLY what 2 Corinthians 5:21 states:
2 Corinthians 5:21
- [NASB] He made Him who knew no sin [to be] sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.
- [KJV] For he hath made him [to be] sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
- [YLT] for him who did not know sin, in our behalf He did make sin, that we may become the righteousness of God in him.
- [DBY] Him who knew not sin he has made sin for us, that we might become God's righteousness in him.
- [WEB] For he hath made him [to be] sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
You keep telling me what it CANNOT mean, while ignoring the actual words that say exactly what you claim they cannot mean. The argument is not that Christ cannot have been made sin ... scripture already refutes that. The question is “How (in what sense) was Christ made sin?” and right along with that “How (in what sense) are we made the righteousness of God?”