Greetings again The Biblicist,
I am willing to discuss a few aspects of the above. But in the meantime could you please give a simple explanation of Luke 1:35 as quoted in my previous post. Looking at a few aspects from your earlier post.
John 1:1,14,18 all demand PRIOR existence of The Word to being "tabernacled" in a human form. Luke 1:35 expresses in simple terms how the Preexistent Word "became" (Jn. 1:14) flesh and dwelt among us. As you know both the father and mother contribute DNA in conception of a child. Mary contributed the HUMAN DNA but God the Father "gave" His Son, the preincarnate Word or provided the Divine DNA in this conception. "A child is born" but a "Son is GIVEN."
This is how the Preexistent Word "became" flesh and tabernacled among us.
I will let you two decide where the spirits of beasts go. You seem to define that “spirit” is immaterial and are of necessity immortal.
Moriah is wrong! Solomon is not doubting or denying where the spirits of man versus beast go. Solomon is writing from the perspective of one who lives "under the sun" and not from one who has been in heaven or on the other side of death.
No human living "under the sun" knows by personal experience. However, take note that he distinguishes the "spirit" of man and beast from their bodies and declares the existence of the "spirit" beyond the physical death of the body and its return to dust (vv. 19-20).
Matthew 10:28 proves that the "soul" cannot be killed by men but continues to exist in spite of them killing the body. Jesus distinguishes between the body and the soul when he says "BOTH" will be rendered useless (apolummi) by God in Gehenna. In the mean time BETWEEN physical death and eternal judgement man did not kill the "soul" when he killed the body and so the "soul" continues to exist. The "soul" is spiritual in substance.
Second, both the good and evil spirits of men return to God who then disposes of them according to His revealed word. He sends the evil soul to hades and the good to be with him in heaven.
Where do you find that Luke 16 and the story of Lazerus and the rich man is ever called a "parable"? What parable do you ever find where any individual is ever named? Moses and the prophets are not parabolic in nature? Abraham is not parabolic in nature! The purpose of a parable is to provide a parallel illustration taken from a REALISTIC circumstance not a fictious one! Hence, a "sower" was REALISTIC in their culture! Hence, a "husbandman" was REALISTIC in their culture. Parables ALWAYS took things that were REALISTIC in their own experiences. Furthermore, parables were used to reinforce REAL and and AUTHENTIC truths. What REAL and AUTHENTIC truth would this story of two men AFTER PHYSICAL DEATH would convey if death simply ended it all? Answer - NOTHING!
Is Abraham’s bosom heaven?
Do you know what this expression meant to the Jews in Christ's day? Apparently not! John leaned upon the "bosom" of Christ when administering the Lord's Supper. John claimed that he was the one whom Christ "loved." Abraham was the role model and "father" of the Jewish nation and death was expressed for the pious Jew to go "be with their fathers" of which Abraham was regarded as the greatest and to be in the "bosom of Abraham" was the expression that conveyed death not in the terms of fear and hopelessness but in the terms of being received in love.
The beggar’s name is Lazarus, and at the end of the parable Jesus speaks of resurrection. Soon after this Jesus raised Lazarus from the dead to clearly teach his own beliefs, and prefigure his own resurrection. Jesus taught the resurrection not immortal souls or spirits.
Your connecting one Lazerus to the other Lazerus is mere wishful thinking. The resurrection is not being taught in this story. What is being taught in this story is that only prior to physical death is there opportunity to determine your post-death destination and if the Word of God is the only witness that God provides men and there will be no one sent back from the other side to them. He is denying that even if one were to be resurrected from the dead it would help influence brothers to submit to God's Word. Both the resurrection of his friend Lazerus and Himself proves this conclusion.
When speaking to the Corinthians he is using an extended figure of a tabernacle. He is not talking of going to heaven, but the change from our mortal body to an immortal spiritual body at the resurrection.
2 Corinthians 5:2-4 (KJV): 2 For in this we groan, earnestly desiring to be clothed upon with our house which is from heaven: 3 If so be that being clothed we shall not be found naked. 4 For we that are in this tabernacle do groan, being burdened: not for that we would be unclothed, but clothed upon, that mortality might be swallowed up of life.
No, he is teaching the very reverse. He is looking for the Lord's return and wants simply to be clothed upon immediately while alive with his new house/body that originates with Christ coming from heaven or what he speaks about concerning the living at the Lord's return (1 Cor. 15:51-55). He would prefer not to wait in heaven as a redeemed "naked" spirit without either his physical or new glorified body during the intermediate period between death and the second coming when Christ "BRINGS WITH HIM" the saints (1 Thes. 4:14) or those "spirits of just men" now in heaven (Heb. 12:23).
Absolute proof is his use of the two Aorist tense infinitives showing that there is no time gap but simeltaneous action
"to be absent from the body and to be present with the Lord"
Hence "to be absent" from the body IS "to be present" with the Lord.
Finally, he describes the body as a home for something he calls "I" which can be either "present" or "absent" from that home. That in and of itself destroys your whole position.