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The "Psalm 12:6-7 thingie" used by KJVOs is false.

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Logos1560

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Scripture clearly condemns incest, so I DO have Scriptural support for believing Cain's wife was not his sister. End of story.

Your misunderstanding or misinterpretation is not the end of the story. You are incorrectly trying to read later additional revelation in the time of Moses into an earlier period of time before that revelation was given. That is not sound scriptural interpretation.

In addition, there are also other serious scriptural teachings that would conflict your non-scriptural opinions. The Bible doctrine concerning how sin entered the world through Adam so that death passed up all that are his descendants (Romans 5:12-19, 1 Cor. 15:21-22). How would Cain's wife if she was supposed created separately be involved in Adam's sin and have death passed upon her if she was supposedly not a descendant of Adam? How could Cain's wife be made a sinner by Adam's disobedience if she was not a descendant of Adam as you claim? How can Jesus Christ be the last Adam (1 Cor. 15:45) for people who supposedly are not descendants of Adam and Eve?
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Your misunderstanding or misinterpretation is not the end of the story. You are incorrectly trying to read later additional revelation in the time of Moses into an earlier period of time before that revelation was given. That is not sound scriptural interpretation.

In addition, there are also other serious scriptural teachings that would conflict your non-scriptural opinions. The Bible doctrine concerning how sin entered the world through Adam so that death passed up all that are his descendants (Romans 5:12-19, 1 Cor. 15:21-22). How would Cain's wife if she was supposed created separately be involved in Adam's sin and have death passed upon her if she was supposedly not a descendant of Adam? How could Cain's wife be made a sinner by Adam's disobedience if she was not a descendant of Adam as you claim? How can Jesus Christ be the last Adam (1 Cor. 15:45) for people who supposedly are not descendants of Adam and Eve?
I'm going by the fact that I believe God has always considered incest an abomination.
 

JD731

Well-Known Member
Your misunderstanding or misinterpretation is not the end of the story. You are incorrectly trying to read later additional revelation in the time of Moses into an earlier period of time before that revelation was given. That is not sound scriptural interpretation.

In addition, there are also other serious scriptural teachings that would conflict your non-scriptural opinions. The Bible doctrine concerning how sin entered the world through Adam so that death passed up all that are his descendants (Romans 5:12-19, 1 Cor. 15:21-22). How would Cain's wife if she was supposed created separately be involved in Adam's sin and have death passed upon her if she was supposedly not a descendant of Adam? How could Cain's wife be made a sinner by Adam's disobedience if she was not a descendant of Adam as you claim? How can Jesus Christ be the last Adam (1 Cor. 15:45) for people who supposedly are not descendants of Adam and Eve?

We have learned some weird things from his typewriter, not the least of which he believes God has called him to rebuke people who believes his word, when faith in his word is what saves a sinner and God ordained it to be that way.

My head spins.
 

Stratton7

Member
It doesn't benefit ME a bit, except to know I'm doing what God influenced me to do-work against a false doctrine. And, like it or not, believe it or not, the KJVO myth has been proven false. It's proven to have a Satanic origin. It's pretty obvious he invented it to cast doubt upon God's word & try to limit its spread & the understanding of it.
Proven by whom? Maybe through your lenses.

Look into W&H’s personal practices, the differences of colorations of the text and how well “kept” they are, and how different all these new versions are (just a few examples that are far more expansive than just naming them) if you’re going to speak of Satanic origin.

Over 400 years the KJB has brought people to Christ and kept families together. Must have not done a good job limiting its spread as you claim.
And OF COURSE my posts are my take on things as I'm their author, same as yours are YOUR take. That's common sense!
No, meaning your take on things vs. what the Bible says and/or evidence that is shown you in the past. Just seems like you have all the answers and those you disagree with don’t despite if it’s fact.
Not at all. Fighting a false doctrine of faith/worship is NOT Satan working against Satan.
The “going in the other direction” talks about the origin of how many new versions came to be.
False doctrine of faith/worship, hmm. Seems to me most KJO’s have faith (quite a bit of it!) and worship just fine the same God you do.
 

JD731

Well-Known Member
The words of the Lord are pure words, as silver tried in the furnace of the earth, purified seven times, thou shalt keep them Thou shout preserve them from this generation forever. Psa 12:7

I have a question for logos1560.

I made the statement that every verse in psalm 12 was a prophetic utterance that has not at this time in history had any part of it fulfilled. Do you agree with that statement or not?

I also said in previous posts that this prophecy of Psalm 12 is following a theme that is given all throughout the prophetic word of God and this theme is dependent upon the consistent use of certain words So we can tell when we are in the context of this end time event that is being revealed through these prophecies. I gave examples of that by pointing out the use of the word “arise” as it relates to Jehovah in four of the 11 psalms previous to Psalm12. In each of those four times this is a prayer of the people that he would arise to deliver them as it is in Psalm 12. However in Psalm 12 it is Jehovah that says that I will arise and deliver you. This is a promise of the answer of their prayer.

The reason this word arise appearsin all these different Psalms is because of where the Lord is when they call upon him. You must remember that when this psalm is finally fulfilled the people or the generation that sees this fulfillment will have been familiar with the Psalms and also they will be familiar with the verses that I quoted from Acts chapter 2 verses 19 through 25 and Acts chapter 3 verses 18 through 22 where the Lord is sitting on his throne until the restoration of all things. A certain remnant of Israel will have the two prophets that are present during this time and awhose ministry is explained in Revelation chapter 11 and will have taught these people this very truth that I am speaking of to you. Not only these two prophets will be present in that time frame but also the 144,000 Jewish preachers who are described in revelation 7 and Revelation 14. These preachers will be preaching the good news that Jesus Christ is coming back to establish his kingdom here on earth through this believing remnant of oppressed and very poor Jews. This is the reason for their prayers that the Lord will arise and return. All of these prophecies will become very clear to the people of that day and in that generation. The LORD Jesus is sitting on the Father’s throne in heaven until it is time for him to return, at which time he will arise from the throne where he has been seated and come back to the earth to deliver them at Jerusalem from the army of the man of sin who is ready to eliminate them from the earth.

I tell you this because it is important that the very words of God is preserved if we are to understand these themes that are given us in scriptures and are carried in this manner in the words.i think maybe this is the reason for the warning about adding or taking away from the words of this end times prophecy. The prophecy can not be understood without the key words that are consistent and necessary for this context. Therefore I believe that God must preserve his words, with the emphasis on his, if we will understand his ways and his will. You can debate whether it is in the KJV and if it is not, it must be in one place. I opt for the KJV.

Several battles in scripture prefigured all of parts of the prophecy and 2 Chronicles 20 is a type that gives much insight into the actual event that Psalm 12 speaks of.
 
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Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Seems to me most KJO’s have faith (quite a bit of it!) and worship just fine the same God you do.

KJV-only advocates are not condemned for believing what God actually says in Scripture.

One problem is with what KJV-only advocates attempt to add to the Scriptures and with how they try to equate faith in opinions of men, faith in human KJV-only reasoning, and faith in assertions that are not true with faith in what the Scriptures state. By believing assertions that are not true, KJV-only advocates deceive themselves concerning those untrue claims. God who is the God of truth does not commend believing assertions that are not true.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I'm going by the fact that I believe God has always considered incest an abomination.
You may believe it, but that does not make it true, and the Scriptures do not actually state what you believe. You are in effect imposing your personal, non-scriptural belief on God. You are not considering soundly the whole counsel of God, and how your belief would conflict with scriptural truths.
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
We have learned some weird things from his typewriter, not the least of which he believes God has called him to rebuke people who believes his word, when faith in his word is what saves a sinner and God ordained it to be that way.

My head spins.
I believe His word, but not the KJVO myth. People who believe that myth have been deceived by the devil into believing a doctrine he created & isn't found in Scripture whatsoever.
 

JD731

Well-Known Member
KJV-only advocates are not condemned for believing what God actually says in Scripture.

One problem is with what

A) KJV-only advocates attempt to add to the Scriptures and with how

  1. they try to equate faith in opinions of men,
  2. faith in human KJV-only reasoning, and
  3. faith in assertions that are not true with faith in what the Scriptures state.

B) By believing assertions that are not true, KJV-only advocates
  • deceive themselves concerning those untrue claims.

C) God who is the God of truth does not commend believing assertions that are not true.

_________________________________

Concerning A) subpoint 1.
This is a false charge, at least on the charge against me. I have never tried that. I have always followed the likes of what Peter said in his first epistle, which says.

1 Pet 1:23 Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.
That statement actually says a lot. The take away here is that the enduring word of God is forever. Isn't that what is said in Psa 12 where we are told the words of the LORD are pure words. Pure is opposite of corruptible.

Now, in 1 Peter he speaks of two things, 1) He speaks of the word of God, and 2), he speaks of the word of the Lord. Read it here.

25 But the word of the Lord endureth for ever. And this is the word which by the gospel is preached unto you.

The word of God is not speaking necessarily (though it could be) of the paper that the testimony of God is written on, but it is speaking of that outward testimony of God that comes to the ear. This is the initial agency of the new birth. The word of God MUST be inside a man for this new birth to take place. When it occurs and the new birth actually takes place it is because the word of the Lord is in you and the word of the Lord is a person. It is Jesus Christ. Nothing in all of scripture is more sure than that.

The physical conception of a new born inside the womb is a picture and type of what takes place in the spiritual. This is the illustration that one needs to see here in these words given by God to Peter. This seed exists and comes from outside of the believer and when it is received a conception occurs and the Lord is now in the believer forever and forever.

Paul, the apostle understood this and tells us this here.

.
27 To whom God would make known what is the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles; which is Christ in you, the hope of glory:

The word of God is still the word of God whether one believes it or whether they do not and many religious men and women believes it is the word of God, BUT, unless it is in you, you are not born again. Ye must be born again.

Eph 3:14 For this cause I bow my knees unto the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ,
15 Of whom the whole family in heaven and earth is named,
16 That he would grant you, according to the riches of his glory, to be strengthened with might by his Spirit in the inner man;
17 That Christ may dwell in your hearts by faith; that ye, being rooted and grounded in love,

Jn 17:3 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.

God is the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ and he is our Father when we receive Jesus Christ into our hearts, and not until then. He is the Word. He is the incorruptible word. Religious men can have a form of godliness and almost get it right but the rubber meets the road when this new birth takes place in a moment of time in one event of receiving him. The physical Jesus is in no one's heart and indwells no one's body, but his Spirit is in the body of believers and his physical presence still exists before and after anyone was born again. The physical words of God in writing are pure words, existing before and after the coming of Christ. They are incorruptible and they are spiritual when they are in the believer. Is not that what Jesus said in Jn 6? Read what he said immediately after he said men must eat his flesh and drink his blood to have life in them.


Jn 6:62 What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?
63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.
64 But there are some of you that believe not.....

It is the Spirit that gives life. The words must hit the ear and then the heart. It hit the ear of Judas among the disciples but Jesus did not say that one of the 12 do not believe but some of you do not believe. This is interesting. There was at least one more to make a plural. Who was it?

I will show you that the "word of the LORD" is referencing a person when I have time. It is the title for Jesus Christ.

Meanwhile, to your point. You might find a convincing argument that God has not preserved his very words and given them to us in an understandable format, but you can never have a convincing argument that the current attitude in modern Christendom, the acceptance of the efforts of men to maintain the integrity of his word in scores of different translations, optimizations, equivalences, and paraphrasing is something that is taught by and approved by God.

I might deal with another of your sub points later.
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Proven by whom? Maybe through your lenses.
By FACTS, & by many other people.
FACT: The KJVO myth isn't found in Scripture whatsoever, a FACT that alone makes it false.

Look into W&H’s personal practices, the differences of colorations of the text and how well “kept” they are, and how different all these new versions are (just a few examples that are far more expansive than just naming them) if you’re going to speak of Satanic origin.
Many, MANY Hebrew, Aramaic, & Koine Greek words/phrases have multiple English meanings, & different translators pick-n-choose among them, especially when there's no help from context in choosing the best one. And there'd be differences anyway because the various translators were/are different people. The four Gospels, all about the same events, differ among themselves.

Over 400 years the KJB has brought people to Christ and kept families together. Must have not done a good job limiting its spread as you claim.
For awhile, the British govt, which had sway over almost all the English-speaking world, prohibited the printing or sale of any other English versions. But after that, as the language changed, the need & desire for modern versions arose. Then came the false KJVO myth.

No, meaning your take on things vs. what the Bible says and/or evidence that is shown you in the past. Just seems like you have all the answers and those you disagree with don’t despite if it’s fact.
No one has, or can, show me Scriptural support for the KJVO myth. OTOH, you've been shown its MAN-MADE origin.

The “going in the other direction” talks about the origin of how many new versions came to be.
False doctrine of faith/worship, hmm. Seems to me most KJO’s have faith (quite a bit of it!) and worship just fine the same God you do.
Except that most of you KJVOs have faith & belief in the false, man-made, NON-SCRIPTURAL KJVO myth that says the KJV is the ONLY valid English Bible version.

Not having anything to actually support that myth, KJVOs invent things like the subject of this thread, the "Psalm 12:6-7 thingie". How anyone believes those verses are "proof-texts" for KJVO is beyond me !
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
You may believe it, but that does not make it true, and the Scriptures do not actually state what you believe. You are in effect imposing your personal, non-scriptural belief on God. You are not considering soundly the whole counsel of God, and how your belief would conflict with scriptural truths.
Wherever incest is mentioned besides the early generations marrying half-sisters, aunts, or cousins, God has been against it. That's all the evidence we have. We know God has always been against homosexuality, as that was one of the things He condemned Sodom for. (Besides idol worship.)

Now, I'm not at all saying any theory about Cain's wife is true or not, but I find it very, VERY hard that God accepted a union between full siblings who had the same parents. If/when God wants us to know where Cain's wife came from He will let us know some day. That's all I have to say about it.
 

Stratton7

Member
@Roby

You quote, “No one has, or can, show me Scriptural support for the KJVO myth.”


Isaiah 40:8 - The grass withereth, the flower fadeth: but the word of our God shall stand for ever.

Matthew 24:35 - Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.

Psalms 119:89 - LAMED. For ever, O LORD, thy word is settled in heaven.

Psalms 12:6-7 - The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. (Read More...)

Matthew 5:18 - For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.

Psalms 119:127 - Therefore I love thy commandments above gold; yea, above fine gold.

While the Bible doesn’t explicitly state “in the KJB”, the words of God can’t be in so many varying places in the modern versions. That’s where manuscript reliability comes in and is also a matter of faith that God kept His promise in divine preservation. Some of these modern versions have nuggets here and there but removes too much. You’re free to not hold to one translation. So feel free to let others do just that.
I’m not intending to make a case for you for a reason. (Wanted to share a few verses though).

The reason for my reply is because you state “No one has, can show me Scriptural support...”

What’s the point in trying to show you when you already have already denied Biblical truth about how the descendants of Adam and Eve came about? Or possibly thinking that God created more than Adam and Eve so that incest couldn’t have taken place regarding Cain?
Therefore, you already deny Biblical truth regardless of Scriptural support and would likely fall on deaf ears.
 

Jerome

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
That's all I have to say about it.
That's NOT all you've said about it! Does that mean you're renouncing the stuff you've said about this previously?

Stuff like:
the origin of....the spouses of Noah's grandkids....I argue that the BEST explanation is that GOD created more people....why could He not have later created other people to be spouses for....Noah's grandkids

...I TOTALLY reject [the Noah's grandkids married their cousins] explanation, based upon GOD'S hatred of [incest], and the fact that there are five distinct races of people today...
Actually, there are FIVE-White, Black, Yellow, Golden-Tan(American Indians, Mongolians, etc.) & Australian Aborigine. They might more-accurately be called BREEDS, just as different breeds of dogs....I'd like to see 'race' replaced with 'breed' for people !
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
_________________________________

Concerning A) subpoint 1.
This is a false charge, at least on the charge against me. I have never tried that. I have always followed the likes of what Peter said in his first epistle, which says.

1 Pet 1:23 Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.
That statement actually says a lot. The take away here is that the enduring word of God is forever. Isn't that what is said in Psa 12 where we are told the words of the LORD are pure words. Pure is opposite of corruptible.

Now, in 1 Peter he speaks of two things, 1) He speaks of the word of God, and 2), he speaks of the word of the Lord. Read it here.

25 But the word of the Lord endureth for ever. And this is the word which by the gospel is preached unto you.

The word of God is not speaking necessarily (though it could be) of the paper that the testimony of God is written on, but it is speaking of that outward testimony of God that comes to the ear. This is the initial agency of the new birth. The word of God MUST be inside a man for this new birth to take place. When it occurs and the new birth actually takes place it is because the word of the Lord is in you and the word of the Lord is a person. It is Jesus Christ. Nothing in all of scripture is more sure than that.

The physical conception of a new born inside the womb is a picture and type of what takes place in the spiritual. This is the illustration that one needs to see here in these words given by God to Peter. This seed exists and comes from outside of the believer and when it is received a conception occurs and the Lord is now in the believer forever and forever.

Paul, the apostle understood this and tells us this here.

.
27 To whom God would make known what is the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles; which is Christ in you, the hope of glory:

The word of God is still the word of God whether one believes it or whether they do not and many religious men and women believes it is the word of God, BUT, unless it is in you, you are not born again. Ye must be born again.

Eph 3:14 For this cause I bow my knees unto the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ,
15 Of whom the whole family in heaven and earth is named,
16 That he would grant you, according to the riches of his glory, to be strengthened with might by his Spirit in the inner man;
17 That Christ may dwell in your hearts by faith; that ye, being rooted and grounded in love,

Jn 17:3 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.

God is the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ and he is our Father when we receive Jesus Christ into our hearts, and not until then. He is the Word. He is the incorruptible word. Religious men can have a form of godliness and almost get it right but the rubber meets the road when this new birth takes place in a moment of time in one event of receiving him. The physical Jesus is in no one's heart and indwells no one's body, but his Spirit is in the body of believers and his physical presence still exists before and after anyone was born again. The physical words of God in writing are pure words, existing before and after the coming of Christ. They are incorruptible and they are spiritual when they are in the believer. Is not that what Jesus said in Jn 6? Read what he said immediately after he said men must eat his flesh and drink his blood to have life in them.


Jn 6:62 What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?
63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.
64 But there are some of you that believe not.....

It is the Spirit that gives life. The words must hit the ear and then the heart. It hit the ear of Judas among the disciples but Jesus did not say that one of the 12 do not believe but some of you do not believe. This is interesting. There was at least one more to make a plural. Who was it?

I will show you that the "word of the LORD" is referencing a person when I have time. It is the title for Jesus Christ.

Meanwhile, to your point. You might find a convincing argument that God has not preserved his very words and given them to us in an understandable format, but you can never have a convincing argument that the current attitude in modern Christendom, the acceptance of the efforts of men to maintain the integrity of his word in scores of different translations, optimizations, equivalences, and paraphrasing is something that is taught by and approved by God.

I might deal with another of your sub points later.
The understandable format includes His word as translated into OUR language, just as 700 years ago, it included His words as translated by Wycliffe. Now, His words are in some 2600 languages & dialects. Most are meaningless to us English users, but not to the people for whom they're intended. Same for modern-English versions. They're intended for US, same as the KJV was intended for 17th-C. British.
@Roby

You quote, “No one has, or can, show me Scriptural support for the KJVO myth.”


Isaiah 40:8 - The grass withereth, the flower fadeth: but the word of our God shall stand for ever.

Matthew 24:35 - Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.

Psalms 119:89 - LAMED. For ever, O LORD, thy word is settled in heaven.

Psalms 12:6-7 - The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. (Read More...)

Matthew 5:18 - For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.

Psalms 119:127 - Therefore I love thy commandments above gold; yea, above fine gold.

While the Bible doesn’t explicitly state “in the KJB”, the words of God can’t be in so many varying places in the modern versions. That’s where manuscript reliability comes in and is also a matter of faith that God kept His promise in divine preservation. Some of these modern versions have nuggets here and there but removes too much. You’re free to not hold to one translation. So feel free to let others do just that.
I’m not intending to make a case for you for a reason. (Wanted to share a few verses though).

The reason for my reply is because you state “No one has, can show me Scriptural support...”

What’s the point in trying to show you when you already have already denied Biblical truth about how the descendants of Adam and Eve came about? Or possibly thinking that God created more than Adam and Eve so that incest couldn’t have taken place regarding Cain?
Therefore, you already deny Biblical truth regardless of Scriptural support and would likely fall on deaf ears.

The same verses, worded in modern English, are found in every valid newer English Bible translation. And there's not one hint of any support for the KJVO myth in any of them, nor in their contexts. And you list Psalm 12:6-7 in your "proof verses" although it's been shown to you in this very thread that they DON"T support KJVO in any way.

You're still batting ZERO (0.000) for any Scriptural support for the KJVO myth.

As for the mss. we shouldn't forget that GOD preserved ALL OF THEM WE HAVE. We can't actually **PROVE** ms. A is correct & ms. B is corrupt because they differ a slight amount. Shoot, the 4 "Gospels" differ a great deal among themselves. Is one correct & another corrupt?

And OF COURSE I believe God has preserved His word, & that we heve every word He intended for us to have, in the various ancient manuscripts He's preserved. And for a long time, He's caused those mss. to be translated into many other languages, including English, & that includes causing updated translations to be made in languages where His word has been present for awhile, including English.(Jacques Lefevre D'Etaples{1455-1536} made the first French translation, & modern French versions, I am told, are much-different. I don't know French.) The Tyndale version was much-different from Wycliffe's, the KJV different from Tyndale's, & modern versions different from the KJV. Each is in the English style of the times each was made.

Nowhere is GOD limited to just one version in any widely-used language.

Now, I have no quarrel with one PREFERRING the KJV or any other one version, but I DO have one with anyone who insists any one version is the ONLY valid one. That concept is FALSE!
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
That's NOT all you've said about it! Does that mean you're renouncing the stuff you've said about this previously?

Stuff like:
I don't know what Noah's grandkids did for spouses. I've never flatly stated God created other people, but it can't be completely ruled out.

As for races, it's pretty obvious there are races of people.. You see my pic on my posts I'm not the same skin color as Bill Cosby or Kim Jong-Un, nor have the same hair consistency. (I shave my head, but my hair is straight if I let it grow.) There should be no question there.
 

JD731

Well-Known Member
The understandable format includes His word as translated into OUR language, just as 700 years ago, it included His words as translated by Wycliffe. Now, His words are in some 2600 languages & dialects. Most are meaningless to us English users, but not to the people for whom they're intended. Same for modern-English versions. They're intended for US, same as the KJV was intended for 17th-C. British.


The same verses, worded in modern English, are found in every valid newer English Bible translation. And there's not one hint of any support for the KJVO myth in any of them, nor in their contexts. And you list Psalm 12:6-7 in your "proof verses" although it's been shown to you in this very thread that they DON"T support KJVO in any way.

You're still batting ZERO (0.000) for any Scriptural support for the KJVO myth.

As for the mss. we shouldn't forget that GOD preserved ALL OF THEM WE HAVE. We can't actually **PROVE** ms. A is correct & ms. B is corrupt because they differ a slight amount. Shoot, the 4 "Gospels" differ a great deal among themselves. Is one correct & another corrupt?

And OF COURSE I believe God has preserved His word, & that we heve every word He intended for us to have, in the various ancient manuscripts He's preserved. And for a long time, He's caused those mss. to be translated into many other languages, including English, & that includes causing updated translations to be made in languages where His word has been present for awhile, including English.(Jacques Lefevre D'Etaples{1455-1536} made the first French translation, & modern French versions, I am told, are much-different. I don't know French.) The Tyndale version was much-different from Wycliffe's, the KJV different from Tyndale's, & modern versions different from the KJV. Each is in the English style of the times each was made.

Nowhere is GOD limited to just one version in any widely-used language.

Now, I have no quarrel with one PREFERRING the KJV or any other one version, but I DO have one with anyone who insists any one version is the ONLY valid one. That concept is FALSE!

So, you disagree with what I said about the words of God? That is you final position? You believe the message from God, not his words?
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
So, you disagree with what I said about the words of God? That is you final position? You believe the message from God, not his words?
The KJV is no more His words than any other Bible translation. It's a TRANSLATION of His words, with proven goofs & booboos.

God's words, as He passed them down to us, are in ancient Hebrew, Aramaic, and Koine Greek. Few people can read them today. Almost all of us depend upon translations.

Seems you were telling me that the verses you posted refer to the KJV only. Sorry, Captain; that hippo won't fly. That's just an extension of the "Psalm 12:6-7 thingie", which is being dealt with in this thread.

You're in a small minority here in believing the KJVO myth. Most of us have seen how false it is. Now, again, if you simply PREFER the KJV, as did the late J. Vernon McGee, fine. He preached from the KJV because that was the version he grew up with, but he made it plain that he was NOT KJVO. That wise old man of God saw through its falsehood from the gitgo.
 
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Yeshua1

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The KJV is no more His words than any other Bible translation. It's a TRANSLATION of His words, with proven goofs & booboos.

God's words, as He passed them down to us, are in ancient Hebrew, Aramaic, and Koine Greek. Few people can read them today. Almost all of us depend upon translations.

Seems you were telling me that the verses you posted refer to the KJV only. Sorry, Captain; that hippo won't fly. That's just an extension of the "Psalm 12:6-7 thingie", which is being dealt with in this thread.

You're in a small minority here in believing the KJVO myth. Most of us have seen how false it is. Now, again, if you simply PREFER the KJV, as did the late J. Vernon McGee, fine. He preached from the KJV because that was the version he grew up with, but he made it plain that he was NOT KJVO. That wise old man of God saw through its falsehood from the gitgo.
True, as at times provided his own translation form the hebrew/Greek, and other times used new Scofield!
 

Stratton7

Member
And there's not one hint of any support for the KJVO myth in any of them
You believe the KJB are the words of God too. The gripe are those who don’t accept more translations as you do.
Which isn’t necessarily true either. There are Bibles in other languages from the KJB or have used the same underlying texts.
You're still batting ZERO (0.000) for any Scriptural support for the KJVO myth.
You don’t accept Scriptural support as far as I have seen on those things which you disagree with.
Now, I have no quarrel with one PREFERRING the KJV or any other one version, but I DO have one with anyone who insists any one version is the ONLY valid one. That concept is FALSE!
So if an individual only prefers one version, their advocating a false doctrine. Must accept multiple translations to be ok with the preference. Got it.
The KJV is no more His words than any other Bible translation.
You obviously agree that the words of God are in the KJB. (Note 1st quote by you.)
So why get fired up if that’s all that one wants to use?
What a trifle to want to have faith in the KJB if it’s the only one an individual trusts from what you’re saying.
Now, again, if you simply PREFER the KJV, as did the late J. Vernon McGee, fine.
Since he occasionally used/referenced an alternate translation, again, then there is no longer an issue with those believing in their KJB translation as I’m understanding you.

Anyway, let’s move on.
 
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