DeafPosttrib: "Do Matt 24:36, 42 actually saying
it is 'pretrib' rapture?"
Yes. Neither verse has much meaning without a
pretrib rapture. Though i suppose someone will want to
twist the scripture so it does. Have at it.
BTW, Brother DPT, i still wonder why you think disagreeing
with 10% of my minor points invalidates my major point?
My Major Point is that the Rapture/Resurrection of the
saints at the end of the Church Age is before the
Tribulation period.
Matthew 24:36 (HCSB = The Holman Christian Standard Bible)
Now concerning that day and hour no one
knows--neither the angels in heaven,
nor the Son* --except the Father only.
Footnote: * some mms omit "nor the Son"
This is the main reason That we believe that the rapture/resurrection
coming of Jesus is seperate from the Coming in power and glory
of Jesus to destroy the antichrist. The Coming in power
and glory of Jesus to destroy the antichrist is totally on
a schedule, with observable events happending 7 years prior and
other observable events happening 3½ years prior.
Once the treaty for the safety of Jerusalem is re-signed,
a 7-year clock starts ending with the Coming in power and glory
of Jesus to destroy the antichrist - this is the revelation of
the antichrist. 3½-years later when the antichrist
commits the abomination of desolation, a 3½-year clock starts
ending with the Coming in power and glory
of Jesus to destroy the antichrist.
This scheduling does NOT sound much like
By contrast, the coming of Jesus to collect His saints,
the rapture/resurrection comilng of Jesus - this is
actually totally unpredictable beforehand when it might
occur.
Some say these two events are together. Well, in God's ecomony,
they are together. Both the the rapture/resurrection
coming of Jesus and the Coming in power and glory
of Jesus to destroy the antichrist are one the same prophetic
day: the 7-year-long "day".
Matthew 24:42 (HCSB):
24:42
Therefore be alert, since you don't know
what day* your Lord is coming.
Other mms read
hour, = time
Verse 42 of Matthew 24 restresses the immediacy of the
the rapture/resurrection coming of Jesus, it can happen
at any time. Note again that in God's economy,
1 day = 1 hour.
That is because "day" means "the appropriate time",
hour, means the appropriate time.
In God's economy 1 hour = 1 day.
In God's economy for the Day of the Lord = God's
judgement on His people Israel = the Tribulation period;
7-years = 1 day = 1 hour.
DeafPosttrib: "The context of Matthew chapter 24 talking
about Christ's coming at the end of the world.
Wrong. The context of Matthew chapter 24
speaks about Christ's coming at the
end of the age.
Matthew 24:3 (HCSB)
While He was sitting on the Mount of Olives, the disciples
approached Him privately and said,
"Tell us, when will these things happen?
And what is the sign of Your coming
and of the
end of the age?"
The KJV1611, KJV1769, and KJV1873 are all wrong here.
The Greek term here is "eaon" (age) not "cosmos" (world).
Revelation 20 teaches that after this age, after the
tribulation period (transfer between ages) is a
Millinnial Kingdom of Jesus age of 1,000 years.
The world will be around for awhile longer. Make plans
now to share in future ages, part of God's reward for
Saints of this age who serve well.
- for Jesus -
