I guess I can correctly assume that was ten days before Peter said, "Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulchre is with us unto this day,"?
When Peter says, _that David, being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne; “he, foreseeing this, spoke concerning the resurrection of the Christ, that His (Christ;s) soul was not left in Hades, nor did His flesh see corruption"; - Should we then understand, that on that given day, the soul of David was still in Hades and the flesh of David had seen corruption?
My personal understanding is on the morrow after the weekly Sabbath after the death of Jesus, he Jesus, ascended to the Father to be accepted for us, then returned for forty days more on earth. At that ascension he led captive, death, (singular even as is captivity in Ephesians 4:8 is singular) being raised from the dead to die no more, Rom 6:9 death hath no more dominion over him. Also Acts 2:33 would apply at that time, having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, by which, he would give gifts to men and also our and David's, earnest seal of our house which is from heaven, the redemption of the purchased possession. the body. 2 Cor 5:5, Eph 1:13,14, Romans 6:23
Question
Then shall be brought to pass the saying that is written: “Death is swallowed up in victory.”
“O Death, where is your sting?
O Hades, where is your victory?”
When is then?
For Paul of Tarsus, for John Calvin, for Jacobus Arminius, for Charles Spurgeon, when is then ?