Brother Shane
New Member
Yes, but according to scripture and the angel, he took her as his wife before Jesus was born. He "knew" her not, until after Jesus was born.
What are you getting at?
You need to get the "Greek" definition of fornication and see that it also covers adultery. This couple was married, yet Jesus used the term of fornication in the first part for the same couple and adultery later for the same couple.
Jesus used the first word, fornication, to mean premarital sex. Want to know how I know why? Because no where else in the Bible did He advocate divorce. That's why! I also know He used it in that sense because if the words were meant to mean the same thing in that verse, then only one word would have been used. Like in Galatations... do you think He meant the same thing when He separated fornication and adultery in the same verse?
We are discussing where Jesus did put it for our learning. You will have to ask Him why its not elsewhere. But if all Jesus had said and done had of been written, I suppose the world would not contain the books.
Is that all you got? Because if all Jesus had said and done had been written, the world would not contain the books? That is your excuse for it being no where else when Jesus spoke about divorce? I have the answer: it is because He was speaking about the Jews and no where else does He mention "fornication" as a reason for divorce because He won't allow it.
I explain that Jesus used the two different words, for the selfsame people, if the translators got it correct. Also, if fornication is for premarital sex, how come Jesus used it for a married person???
What, when, and where?