OldRegular
Well-Known Member
1) Can you cite a single Calvinist author who believes that foreknowledge merely means...
What Calvinism does is apply the modern dictionary meaning of foreknowledge (knowledge of the future) and claim that as the actual meaning of the Greek words translated as foreknow and its variants including foreknowledge. Many but not all also add in the view that "know" means intimate knowledge (i.e. a loving relationship) and thus to foreknow is to fore-love. This is a back door argument for individual election before time because an intimate relationship would be with an individual. It is twaddle.
2) The actual meaning is to refer to prior knowledge being utilized in the present, i.e. Christ was killed according to the foreknowledge of God. Or Christ was foreknown as the Lamb of God before the foundation of the world. Knowledge acquired or formulated beforehand being used in the present is the actual biblical meaning.
Romans 8:28-30
28. And we know that all things work together for good to them that love God, to them who are the called according to his purpose.
29. For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.
30. Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.
Read the Scripture, particularly verse 29:
29. For whom he did foreknow,
The Apostle is talking about individuals that God foreknew {and "foreloved" as kyredneck said}, not that he knows what will happen in time. That is a given unless you reject the Omniscience of God and embrace Open Theism.
Note that the ASV, the NASB, and the NKJV use the clause:
29. For whom He foreknew,
Again indicating that God foreknew the individual.