In response to Darrell #109
When I say Cornelius refutes Total Depravity, I am speaking of the Calvinist view that holds unregenerate man cannot have true faith in God or perform any good work that is acceptable to God. Cornelius refutes this, he had true faith and his works and prayers were accepted with God. He did all this before he heard and believed the gospel and received the Spirit. This refutes Total Depravity in the Calvinist view.
But it does not refute what scripture says concerning man: he cannot, because he does not have the ability not to sin, meet a standard of righteousness which would allow him to bypass the penalty of law. You have agreed to this already.
So I do not know why this continues to be debated.
If it is not possible for man to be righteous unto life, the life of God, that settles it. No further discussion required.
We see that while man may have a positional standing of righteousness among men, according to the righteousness of God, over and over in scripture we see that he does not.
Arguments are presented based primarily upon syllogistic reasoning, such as "If the Lord said obey the law and you will live," the conclusion is that man would live if he obeyed the law. The flaw with that logic is that nowhere does it say that man can, and states the exact opposite.
If james says...
James 3
2For in many things we offend all. If any man offend not in word, the same is a perfect man, and able also to bridle the whole body.
Now this states that if any man bridles his tongue, he also bridles his body, right? He is a perfect man.
Is that not what James is saying?
I have never said Cornelius, or Abraham, or David, or any other person never sinned. I don't know where you got that, but you didn't get it from me. I would appreciate if you did not misrepresent me.
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I can see I will have to more careful in my wording.
Okay...why did they sin?
Answer that and the discussion ends.
And that men were once in right standing with God, why did Jesus say we must be born AGAIN? What is the definition of "again"?
In the parable of the prodigal son, why did Jesus twice say the young man was ALIVE AGAIN? How can you be "alive again" if you were born dead?
He is very clear in John 3...the first is physical, the second is spiritual.
Again can also be viewed as "above." This is in agreement with John 1, which speaks of the work of God in the new birth, stating that those that receive Christ are born of God. This is a familiar theme in John's writing.
The dispute is when men became "not in right standing with God."
Denial that man's nature separates man from God from birth leads to other fallacies, such as man can be righteous based upon his own works (and there is no other alternative), and Christ is not in fact...separated from sinners.
Both of which are clearly in error.
Why does God call infants who were sacrificed to idols MY CHILDREN in Eze 16:21?
This has been discussed a number of times so far, I believe, but I will explain my understanding, and you can judge. I just ask that you give this understanding consideration, and tell me that it is not probable:
Ezekial 16
20Moreover thou hast taken thy sons and thy daughters, whom thou hast borne unto me, and these hast thou sacrificed unto them to be devoured. Is this of thy whoredoms a small matter,
21That thou hast slain my children, and delivered them to cause them to pass through the fire for them?
First, would God not consider the children of His created people...His?
Second, look at the original language, and see that while I think justified, "unto me" is implied, not a direct translation.
Third, the chapter clarifies that it is Israel in view:
Ezekiel 16
3And say, Thus saith the Lord GOD unto Jerusalem; Thy birth and thy nativity is of the land of Canaan; thy father was an Amorite, and thy mother an Hittite.
To conclude that this means they are in spiritual union with God, or have the life of God not only denies the context of the very passage, it denies clear statement to the contrary.
It is because of their sin they are rebuked, so to use this to deny man is born with a nature separated from God will just not hold up under scrutiny.
If we are born in sin, children of wrath and of the devil, how could God call these infants "my children"?
See above.
Why does 1 Pet 2:25 say we were as sheep going astray, but are now RETURNED to Jesus? How can you return to Jesus if you were born separated from him in sin at birth?
Answer those questions.
I have also replied to this. This is what really denigrates good discussion, having to address the same issues over and over.
Look up lost sheep, and determine whether Israel was wandering around having forgotten their addresses. I don't have time to speak more on this right now, but in short, all of mankind has returned to God through Christ.
Wiman, your line of questioning is right on, and your logic consistent with truth. :thumbsup:
My question to Darrell would be this. Do spiritually dead men have spiritual insight?
No. While they can read commentaries and present a good front, it does not preclude that the lost cannot give an appearance of being born again.
But, the conclusions they arrive at can be seen to be in disagreement with scripture, as it usually involves a central focus upon just a few doctrines, rather than a sound overview of the teaching of scripture.
If so, how can that be? If not, where does it say that all from birth have no spiritual insight?
Paul makes it clear:
2 Corinthians 2
9But as it is written, Eye hath not seen, nor ear heard, neither have entered into the heart of man, the things which God hath prepared for them that love him.
Usually thought to describe heaven, rather the glorious truth to be found here is the redemption of man through Christ, and specifically PAul makes it clear the indwelling presence of God:
10But God hath revealed them unto us by his Spirit: for the Spirit searcheth all things, yea, the deep things of God.
He has revealed by that which was mystery before, which is, the New Covenant blessings associated with salvation in Christ, not how wonderful heaven will be when we die.
It is by the indwelling Spirit of God by which we understand these things. Before we have the Spirit of God, which most will admit occurs at salvation, and a result of the New Birth, we cannot, as Paul teaches here...understand.
11For what man knoweth the things of a man, save the spirit of man which is in him? even so the things of God knoweth no man, but the Spirit of God.
"No man" can understand the things of God except by the Spirit of God.
"No man" has the Spirit of God until saved.
"No man" therefore, can have "spiritual insight."
12Now we have received, not the spirit of the world, but the spirit which is of God; that we might know the things that are freely given to us of God.
Two "spirits" contrasted here: of the world (that which is natural); of God, that which...
9But
as it is written,
Eye hath not seen, nor ear heard, neither have entered into the heart of man, the things which God hath prepared for them that love him.
Back up one verse from here and we see that it is the death of Christ that was a mystery to the natural man, for if they had had "spiritual insight," they would not have crucified the Lord of Glory...Christ.
13Which things also we speak, not in the words which man's wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Ghost teacheth; comparing spiritual things with spiritual.
Man's wisdom, his "spiritual insight" is contrasted with the wisdom taught by the Holy Spirit. At this point man can compare "spiritual things with spiritual things," whereas in his natural condition...he could not.
14But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.
And here again we see the state, the condition, of natural man. He that has not received teh Spirit of God, that has not received Christ.
So to answer the question, no, natural man, while he can parrot the commentary of those who may or may not have been saved, cannot have a true "spiritual insight" concerning the things of God, or spiritual things.
God bless.