He is most definitely NOT reformed. He is a Particular Baptist, believing in Particular Redemption.And he is Reformed so no bias for what I say
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He is most definitely NOT reformed. He is a Particular Baptist, believing in Particular Redemption.And he is Reformed so no bias for what I say
He is most definitely NOT reformed. He is a Particular Baptist, believing in Particular Redemption.
Did the lord die so that a real salvation would come, or that just a potential for salvation came?The Death of Jesus Christ is not "actual" and it did not actually save anyone, but "potential", in that it is OFFERED to the entire human race.
"Whom God has offered* to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him who believes in Jesus" (Romans 3:25-26)
* προτίθημι, "offered or provided" (J H Moulton and G Milligan, Vocabulary of the Greek New Testament)
Did the lord die so that a real salvation would come, or that just a potential for salvation came?
God either meant that the death of Jesus brought back a selected elected out group from sinful humanity, or else he intended to make it possible to save all, but no guarantee that any would get saved!you speak a foreign language here, kindly give interpretation
Was the death of Jesus a propitiation for all sinners than?The Death of Jesus Christ is not "actual" and it did not actually save anyone, but "potential", in that it is OFFERED to the entire human race.
"Whom God has offered* to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him who believes in Jesus" (Romans 3:25-26)
* προτίθημι, "offered or provided" (J H Moulton and G Milligan, Vocabulary of the Greek New Testament)
God either meant that the death of Jesus brought back a selected elected out group from sinful humanity, or else he intended to make it possible to save all, but no guarantee that any would get saved!
Was the death of Jesus a propitiation for all sinners than?
Even though He knew that according to you, it was a real possibility that none could be?"he intended to make it possible to save all"
Even though He knew that according to you, it was a real possibility that none could be?
My mistake, as I thought that you held to real free will salvation?I never said that!
My mistake, as I thought that you held to real free will salvation?
Saved-By-Grace I am a quasi-Arminian. One of those people who believes He invites all, most go to hell, but cannot fathom the process by which we are in fact saved. Because I am still trying to understand it from the bible. I say that to give you the sense I am not being antagonistic.
That said, it seems this would have been a far better thread over in the Arminianism vs Calvinism debate forum. Also, as I said earlier, it seems this has been very divisive since all that has been done is to get the Particular Baptists riled up. I hope the reason for discourse is not to argue and further divide people we accept as brothers, sisters, mothers, and elders. But to come to a deeper understanding of your own position, and an understanding of where others that read the Word like us have staked their position and why.
The OP is about "repentance" which has nothing to do with the Arminianism vs Calvinism debate, which it has been hijacked into! I am a firm believer that we should all be able to defend from the Word what we believe, and do so with love, and not with the purpose of winning an argument. There are some who are so entrenched in their theology, that even when they are shown from the Word to be in error, will still insist they are right. This is true of both sides.
Non Calvinistic, holding to the sinner still has the capability to freely respond and trust in jesus to get saved!meaning what?
see #24 which is to you!
Calvin on John 3:16
"That whosoever believeth on him may not perish. It is a remarkable commendation of faith, that it frees us from everlasting destruction. For he intended expressly to state that, though we appear to have been born to death, undoubted deliverance is offered to us by the faith of Christ; and, therefore, that we ought not to fear death, which otherwise hangs over us. And he has employed the universal term whosoever, both to invite all indiscriminately to partake of life, and to cut off every excuse from unbelievers. Such is also the import of the term World, which he formerly used; for though nothing will be found in the world that is worthy of the favor of God, yet he shows himself to be reconciled to the whole world, when he invites all men without exception to the faith of Christ, which is nothing else than an entrance into life."
Note Calvin's non-calvinistic language!
Mark 14:24,
"Which is shed for many. By the word many he means not a part of the world only, but the whole human race"
Colossians 1:14
"He says that this redemption was procured through the blood of Christ, for by the sacrifice of his death all the sins of the world have been expiated"
What think ye?
what a horrible anti scriptural statement....The Death of Jesus Christ is not "actual" and it did not actually save anyone,
but "potential", in that it is OFFERED to the entire human race.
Are you actually discrediting the statement in John?In John 12:40 we read, "He has blinded their eyes, and hardened their hearts; that they should not see with their eyes, nor understand with their hearts, and be converted, and I should heal them"
The quotation of Is. 6:10 in Jn. 12:40 differs from its quotation in Mt. 13:14-15. In Matthew the quotation agrees with the LXX in registering the verbs in the third person plural of the Indicative mode, so that it is the people themselves who perform the actions named; the MT has the verbs in the second person singular of the Imperative mode, so that the prophet is commanded to perform the actions named; in John, by use of third person singular of the Indicative mode, the actions are referred to God.
Look at Acts 28:27, "For the heart of this people is stubborn, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes have they closed; lest they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them"
Here is the entire post #24. The word redemption is never used of Calvin in this quote. It would appear you're being dishonest, at this point. You claimed Calvin accepted universal redemption. I doubt it. It looks like you made this up.
And I'd really like you to define redemption so I can understand how you are using it.