None of you tongues speakers have specifically answered the point Briguy raised about the different verbs and verb forms in I Cor 13. He got this information from me (his big bro), and I have posted it in earlier threads on this board. It seems a refresher course is in order at this time:
Paul wrote these words carefully, employing different terms and different verb forms to describe the different ending points of the gifts. I Corinthians 13 not only does NOT teach that tongues will only end when the 'perfect' comes, it specifically teaches a DIFFERENT ending point for tongues than for knowledge and prophecy.
I hereby lovingly challenge any of the tongues speakers here to respond to this post POINT BY POINT, rather than just dealing in generalities that can be made to fit either side of the argument. Explain how the specific use by Paul of the different verb forms and tenses, and the fact that tongues is mentioned in verse 8 but NOT in verse 9, supports your position instead of mine. Explain why Paul went to so much trouble to distinguish tongues from prophecy and knowledge if they are all part of the same group of gifts with the same ending point. I contend that if your position were true, this passage would not have been written in such a precise way. I challenge anyone who disputes that to show me how I am wrong through a SPECIFIC anaylsis of the fine points of this text.
Now let's look carefully at the entire three verse passage:"Love never ends; as for prophecies, they will pass away; as for tongues, they will cease; as for knowledge, it will pass away." (I Cor. 13:8)
There's a very interesting feature of this verse in the original Greek. The Greek language, in addition to having tenses for its verbs, also has what are called 'voices.' The 'active' voice indicates action by the subject toward something else. The 'passive' voice indicates action on the subject by something else. The 'middle' voice indicates action by the subject toward itself. The word used in reference to 'prophecy' and 'knowledge' in I Cor. 13:8, translated 'pass away,' is in the passive voice, indicating that these things will end due to action upon them. Logically, this can only mean the beginning of God's eternal Kingdom, the 'New Heaven and new earth.' (Rev.21:1) Even with the whole Bible, we are still limited by our fallen human minds. For now, we can only know and understand and speak 'in part.'
The verb used in reference to 'tongues,' however, is not only a different word, it is a different voice: the middle voice. This meant that the Gift of Tongues would die out of its own accord, without anything external acting on it. This is exactly what happened. When those in the early Church who had this Gift died, the Gift died with them. Those who advocate tongues today are trying to revive something that has already ended exactly as the Bible said it would.
In verse 8, three gifts are mentioned. One of them, tongues, is referred to differently from the other two, specifically indicating a DIFFERENT MANNER OF ENDING from the other two gifts (see above). When we get to verse 9, that different gift is no longer mentioned. Only the two gifts whose endings are referred to in an IDENTICAL manner in verse 8 appear in verses 9 and 10. This clearly indicates 1) that the manner of ending discussed in verses 9-10 for prophecy and knowledge does NOT apply to the gift of tongues; and 2) that the gift of tongues will end BEFORE the other two gifts."[8]Love never ends; as for prophecies, they will pass away; as for tongues, they will cease; as for knowledge, it will pass away. [9]For our knowledge is imperfect, and our prophecy is imperfect; [10]but when the perfect comes, the imperfect will pass away." (I Corinthians 13:8-10)
Paul wrote these words carefully, employing different terms and different verb forms to describe the different ending points of the gifts. I Corinthians 13 not only does NOT teach that tongues will only end when the 'perfect' comes, it specifically teaches a DIFFERENT ending point for tongues than for knowledge and prophecy.
I hereby lovingly challenge any of the tongues speakers here to respond to this post POINT BY POINT, rather than just dealing in generalities that can be made to fit either side of the argument. Explain how the specific use by Paul of the different verb forms and tenses, and the fact that tongues is mentioned in verse 8 but NOT in verse 9, supports your position instead of mine. Explain why Paul went to so much trouble to distinguish tongues from prophecy and knowledge if they are all part of the same group of gifts with the same ending point. I contend that if your position were true, this passage would not have been written in such a precise way. I challenge anyone who disputes that to show me how I am wrong through a SPECIFIC anaylsis of the fine points of this text.